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Best OET training for nurses in Kerala

Best OET training for nurses in Kerala

Wish to register as a healthcare professional in Australia, New Zealand, the UK or Ireland? Those looking for the best OET training for nurses in Kerala needn’t look further. RM Quest has gained a reputation as the centre of excellence offering the best OET coaching for nurses in Kerala who dream to make it big. We have made the remarkable distinction as the top provider of the best OET test preparation for nurses in Kerala.

Our high-quality study materials are prepared by expert OET faculty that assures unique OET training for nurses in Kerala. The study material is designed to capacitate the students to tackle the updated OET. Our OET syllabus is effective and very convenient ranking among the best OET Test preparation for nurses in Kerala. As a leading centre for OET Training for Nurses in Kerala, we incorporate key test strategies to ensure our students face OET with confidence. Our proven techniques help us afford effective OET Training for Nurses in Kerala and makes us the top choice for the best OET coaching for nurses in Kerala.

We deliver the best OET test preparation for nurses in Kerala helping students equip themselves with the key skills to score well. Delivering excellent OET Training for Nurses in Kerala, we have particular modules for improving your Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking skills for OET. Ensuring the best OET training for nurses in Kerala, our expert guidance, practice sessions and additional resources enables you to compete well at the test. Extending the best OET test preparation for nurses in Kerala, we ensure you have everything to succeed at OET. Ensuring the best OET training for nurses in Kerala, we have an unceasing commitment to the success of our students. We consistently strive to provide the best OET Training for Nurses in Kerala.

The state-of-the-art professional course that incorporates key strategies and expert advice has helped students succeed. Offering the best OET Coaching for nurses in Kerala, we equip nurses with the fundamental knowledge and skill set along with updated test-handling techniques that help them perform well at the test. This is the prime reason that makes us the most preferred centre offering the best OET Training for Nurses in Kerala. It is guaranteed that students admitted to our OET Training for Nurses in Kerala will pass the test with high scores. Chosen as the best OET coaching for nurses in Kerala, we have helped legions of students achieve their dreams.

International English Language Testing System (IELTS)

International English Language Testing System (IELTS)

 

In this globalised environment IELTS is the most popular testing mechanism to check one’s proficiency on English. It is a benchmark in order to go for higher education and global migration. Thousands of organisations across the globe trust IELTS which means when you enroll yourself for the course, rest assured that it ticks the check boxes of prestigious educational institutions, multinational organisations, government and professional bodies. RM.QUEST make sure that our students reach their desired places and hence it is considered as best IELTS coaching center in Kerala. IELTS serves as a proof of the language skills during the process of recruitment or admission.
Being a pioneer of the four skills (reading, writing, listening and speaking), IELTS is the gold standard for the Queen’s language. These all four skills are trained to the core for their future endeavor. RM.QUEST does this part extremely well since 2008 with the best faculty available in KERALA.
Government agencies in the Commonwealth countries rely IELTS to filter immigration applications. A good IELTS scorecard equips you with knowledge required to succeed in your overseas placement, be it academic- or profession-related. However, there are two subdivisions of IELTS:

  • IELTS Academic
  • IELTS General Training

IELTS Academics measures whether you have the necessary language skills to comprehend the topics being taught in an academic environment, whereas IELTS General Training focuses mainly the proficiency of the language in a practical and day-to-day scenario. However, it should be understood that speaking and listening tests are the same in both categories, but the reading and writing tests are different. This is where the coaching plays an important role to categorize the syllabus and to be taught to students without any confusions. RM.QUEST have always been in prominent position in Town as well as in State with their remarkable results and dedication.
If your test results do not measure up to the required standards, there is no limit on when and how often you can reappear it, but it is wise to prepare a bit more before your next attempt. Generally, testing centres offer preparatory courses and classes on sharpening the language skills, but of late online training portals are also available to help you brush up the knowledge and guide to prepare for the exam. As covid19 restrictions are imposed all over India classes are scheduled online where RM.QUEST never fails in student’s expectation and results. That is why we are named as constant top scoring institutions in Kerala.

IELTS for Academic purposes: Many universities around the world and all universities and academic institutions in the UK require IELTS test results. By securing good scores for IELTS, you are stating that you are well-equipped to complete an international academic course taught in English, so it is natural that higher IELTS scores are required for advanced academic programmes such as Masters or PhDs. Way of approaching for such academic students are different than the general one and that approaching techniques and tips are highly provided by RM.QUEST in order to score high. Thus RM.QUEST is labelled as the best tips and tricks giving coaching among KERALA. We make every participant confident in Person and with the language. And these are our perks we provide in joining RM.QUEST.

IELTS for working abroad: A good IELTS scorecard is also a proof of your language skills to obtain a visa so that you can work overseas. As you know in today’s world, language skills are key to career progress and a much sought after skill in addition to all other skills that qualify you for a job. A good IELTS scorecard demonstrates that you are prepared for more than basic conversational skills.
IELTS is marked out of 9, where a band score of 6.5 on each of the four elements of the test is considered a satisfactory score unless you are applying for something related to teaching, where a score of 7 is considered necessary. RM.QUEST assures an overall band of 7 and we are consistent in scoring minimum 7 from every participants. Hence, without a doubt RM.QUEST institute of English is considered as the best coaching centers available in Kerala.

IELTS for immigration purposes: It is worth mentioning that there is one more subdivision of IELTS, IELTS Life Skills, which is recently introduced. It is a UK-government approved Secure English Test to support the applicants’ UK visas and immigration. Unlike IELTS Academics and IELTS General Training, IELTS Life Skills requires you to demonstrate your proficiency on the language in speaking and listening only. At the end of the exam, unlike a band score, here you will get either a pass or fail result.
That is purely on your language assessment and your confidence will help you get through it. RM.QUEST being the best in coaching as well in life skill/soft skill training helps every participant to clear the exams without much difficulty.
Clearing the exams are part of student’s job and making it to clear easily is our responsibility. And we never pressurize and complex the syllabus we always take the loopholes to help out each and every participant. And make them capable to fly overseas for education and job. RM.QUEST is the Trust to many people and we want it to spread among all the people who are unaware about our institution.

Occupational English Test (OET)
If a healthcare professional wishes to register and practice in an English-speaking country, the test to attend is OET. The test is developed to meet the specific English language skills of people in the healthcare sector. All four language skills (reading, wiring, speaking and listening) are assessed here as well, but writing and speaking tests are conducted in twelve different areas of healthcare. OET is a passport to English language proficiency in a host of countries other than UK. OET is tailored to ensure doctors, nurses and other paramedic staff have sufficient language skills to communication both verbally and written at high level with patients and colleagues, thereby ensuring safe and speedy care. To get a qualified quality OET training and trainer in Kerala is difficult but in RM.QUEST it is not the same. RM.QUEST has the best Trainer available in Kerala for OET and the consistent result is itself is a proof.

The purpose of OET is to ensure that the medical professional has the sufficient ability to converse effectively in a range of medical scenarios, draft a referral or discharge letter, understand what a patient explains and comprehend the write-up in a medical journal. The speaking and writing sections are designed to the specific disciplines in which each profession handles English. RM.QUEST provides the best tips, tricks and techniques to face the exam. RM.QUEST provides individual one to one coaching. Individual attention and quality study materials are our forte. And without a doubt RM.QUEST excels in coaching and the results.

Unlike preparing for IELTS, preparing for OET involves learning wide range of healthcare-related terminologies so that the applicants can seamlessly follow, engage with and participate in a variety of medical fields. Unlike IELTS, OET is measured in grades from A to E, where A is the best. RM.QUEST assures high grade and are consistent in acquiring the desired result. And with the high success repository RM.QUEST INSTITUTE is considered as the best in OET coaching centers among Kerala.

OET is acknowledged by healthcare educational bodies and higher education healthcare institutes. Considering the growing number of specialist medical training disciplines and courses, the number of applicants for OET is increasing every year. For OET, the accreditation process of the training institutes itself is quite rigorous. And RM.QUEST being on the top 10 institutions in Kerala constituently for years is also a result of hard work of the bunch of people associated with it.

To sum up, the applicant must clear OET exam in order to work in healthcare environment in an English-speaking country and for that joining a well reputed institutions is also important. RM.QUEST succeeds in such expectations of participants and we are always happy imparting you the knowledge. Give us an opportunity and you will never regret.

How to improve OET Writing? part 2

How to improve OET Writing? part 2

How to write request respite admission?

The situation of this letter is that a community nurse is actually doing a home visit to provide community care for a patient at home and this patient is to be admitted so it is necessary to request respite admission. The diagnosis of the diseased Crystal Ball and the purpose of corresponding to the Director of Redeemer Palliative Care Hospital must be crystal clear. Mrs. Crystal Ball was nurtured effectively at Blue Care for two months by a community nurse who writes to the Director of Redeemer Palliative Care requesting palliative care admission.

The reader of the letter is the Director of Redeemer Palliative Care who must admit Mrs. Crystal Ball to her care and continue the remedy based on the feedback given by the community nurse. The date given in the case notes is 06/03/2019. The case notes begin with Mrs. Crystal Ball’s family background after specifying her date of birth as 14/02/1976. Immediately after this information, detailed medical history about her diagnosis and therapy is given in the case notes followed by the current medication also. The case notes of Mrs. Crystal Ball is followed by the Writing Task, so the selection, organization as well as transmission of case notes will have to be really transparent and authentic.

CASE NOTES

Today’s Date:- 06/03/2019

You are a community nurse working for Blue Care. You have been providing support for Crystal Ball and her family for the past two months.

Patient Details:-

Name:- Crystal Ball

DOB:- 14/02/76

SOCIAL HISTORY

Married, two children aged 10 and 12

Next of Kin:- Mike Ball (Husband) Real estate agent

Crystal Ball school librarian before illness

Husband main care giver – reduces work hours to care for Crystal

Reports difficulty in caring for a dying partner

Under emotional and physical stress

Children, misbehaving attempts, difficult to manage (not important)

House untidy, dishes not washed etc (not important)

Mike feels isolated and sometimes angry (not important)

No other family support available

Neighbor helps with child minding (not important)

Mrs. Ball doesn’t like people coming to see her (not important)

Mrs. Ball requested spiritual advice

MEDICAL HISTORY

Tonsillectomy as a child (x unimportant)

Appendectomy at 15 (x unimportant)

Admitted General Hospital 18/12/18 with severe stomach pain

Laparoscopy performed stage 4 Ovarian Cancer diagnosed 20/12/2018

Metastasized to liver and left lung, negative prognosis, life expectancy 4 months

Increased Pain, depressed, not eating well, palliative chemotherapy offered to attempt to shrink tumours and slow growth – Mrs. Ball refused. Wished to return home to family. Discharged home – 02/01/2019.

CURRENT MEDICATION

Stemital (anti-nausea) twice daily 8 am to 8 pm

Oxicontin 60 mg prolonged release BID (pain relief)

Panadol 2 tablets every 4 hours PRN

Maxolan for nausea PRN    

Writing Task

Write a letter to the Director, Redeemer Palliative Care Hospital, 32 Nelson Drive, Lucia QLD 4050 requesting palliative respite admission.

Introduction

Date: 06.03.2019

Director

Redeemer Palliative Care Hospital

32, Nelson Drive.

Lucia, QLD 4050

Dear Director,

Re Crystal Ball DOB 14.02.76

Introduction

I am writing this letter to request a palliative respite admission for Crystal Ball aged 43 who has been recently diagnosed with terminal cancer.

To write the first paragraph, the language must be in a narrative style (simple past tense), omission of history that has no relevance to the letter and absolute focus on recent history. Tonsillectomy and Appendectomy need not be included because they are in no way related to Crystal Ball’s current health and above all, this information is trivial to the Director Redeemer Palliative Care Hospital as no action can be taken on the basis of these ailments. The rest of the particulars on medical history are mandatory and must be specified clearly. In addition to what is already specified, her current medication must also be highlighted with precision.

Body Paragraph 1

Mrs. Ball was hospitalized for the first time at Spirit Hospital on 18.12.18 due to awful stomach pain. She was diagnosed for stage 4 ovarian cancer with metastasis to the liver and left lung after conducting a laparoscopy. She was suggested chemotherapy but had refused the same and expressed her unwillingness to stay at the health-care centre only to re-join with her family at the earliest.

The past medical history is already stated so the current trend of Mrs. Ball is to be specified at length which is none other than her pain which depresses her in addition to also suffering from a low appetite.

At the moment, she is suffering from shooting pain and her appetite is very low. Besides, she is in a state of depression. The current medication administered for her present condition too need to be presented in a very condensed manner. She has been prescribed a pain killer to instantly lessen and stop her severe pain in addition to also Stemital and Maxolan to maximize her appetite.

Body Paragraph 2 and conclusion

To prepare the second body paragraph, present tense must be used thereby also summarizing effectively and excluding the irrelevant details. Recommend respite admission for Mrs. Ball. Mrs. Ball can have a break and resume work. He has agreed to this request. The important case notes on social history are ‘highlighted in bold’ and the unimportant ones are labelled as ‘not important’. The words to be selected from the case notes on social history are ‘main care giver’, ‘isolated’ and ‘spiritual advice’, ‘reports difficulty’ and ‘family advice’.

Mrs. Ball lives with her husband, and has two young children. Mr. Ball worked for lesser hours in order to nurture his better half. However, he is undergoing emotional stress and feels isolated at times. Due to the complexity of the present situation, Mr. Ball agreed to respite admission for his wife. It is to be noted that, Mrs. Ball requested for spiritual advice.

It would be absolutely commendable if you could allow Mrs. Ball into your care to lessen the pressures faced by the family.

Yours Sincerely,

Xxxx

The entire phase of the letter on request respite admission is as follows:- 

Introduction

Date: 06.03.2019

Director

Redeemer Palliative Care Hospital

32, Nelson Drive.

Lucia, QLD 4050

Dear Director,

Re Crystal Ball DOB 14.02.76

Introduction:-

I am writing this letter to request a palliative respite admission for Crystal Ball aged 43 who has been recently diagnosed with terminal cancer.

Body paragraph 1

Mrs. Ball was hospitalized for the first time at Spirit Hospital on 18.12.18 due to awful stomach pain. She was diagnosed for stage 4 ovarian cancer with metastasis to the liver and left lung after conducting a laparoscopy. She was suggested chemotherapy but had refused the same and expressed her unwillingness to stay at the health-care centre only to re-join with her family at the earliest.

Current situation

At the moment, she is suffering from shooting pain and her appetite is very low and besides, she is in a state of depression. The current medication administered for her present condition too need to be presented in a very condensed manner. She has been prescribed a pain killer to instantly lessen and stop her severe pain in addition to also Stemital and Maxolan to maximize her appetite.

Body Paragraph 2

Mrs. Ball lives with her husband, and has two young children. Mr. Ball worked for lesser hours in order to nurture his better half. However, he is undergoing emotional stress and feels isolated at times. Due to the complexity of the present situation, Mr. Ball agreed to respite admission for his wife. It is to be noted that, Mrs. Ball requested for spiritual advice.

Conclusion:-

It would be absolutely commendable if you could allow Mrs. Ball into your care to lessen the pressures faced by the family.

Yours Sincerely,

Xxxx

How to improve OET writing?

How to improve OET writing?

How to improve writing a good medical referral letter?

Good planning is the key to success. In order to plan strategically, a thorough understanding of the case notes is essential to ensure a correct response to the task question. The recipient to whom the letter is to be addressed must be crystal clear at the commencement of the letter itself. Once it is already confirmed on who would be the addressee of the medical referral letter, the purpose of writing the letter must be explained in a straight forward manner. The selection and elucidation of the case notes must be based on the information that is crucial for the reader based on which necessary action can be executed instantly without any further delay. Too many case notes are given by the examiners to distract the test takers. Unwanted particulars in the case notes are not important for readers. The particulars to be summarized and paraphrased must be also known while drafting a medical referral letter. Writing to the point can only help referral letter writers to shorten the body paragraphs and yet fulfill the word requirement as expected between 180 and 200. Incorporating unnecessary case notes can make the letter absolutely unfocussed and invariably long which may not do justice to the write up work.

An ideal example is the case notes of Ashley Kim wherein she was subject to physical abuse by her husband Brad Park and the fact is that she visited the health care centre first, six months before, and thereafter every alternate month also until the Police Case Report came to limelight a day before the drafting of her case history. Having experienced the worst scenario from her life partner, she and her son Alex Park requires shelter at Women’s Shelter and the authority to grant permission is the Director of Women’s Shelter as per the medical referral letter addressed by the health care professional of Brisbane Sprit Hospital Burn Ward to her.

The challenge while corresponding to the Director of Women’s Shelter is to present the details that can enable the Director of Women’s Shelter to take action which means grant shelter willingly to Ashley Kim and her son Alex Park.

Since the Director of Women’s Shelter is going to provide shelter, he/she needs to know the social background of the patient followed by the history of health, current abuse and involvement of other health professionals. However, the details pertaining to past admission and treatment need not be specified at all because the Director of Women’s Health will not act on that information. Special focus must be given to any patient’s current health condition which is supposed to be the recovery stage from burn injuries. The detailed case notes of Ashley Kim is followed by the writing task also.

CASE NOTES – ASHLEY KIM

Today’s Date:-    21/02/2018

Patient’s Details 

Name:- Ashley Kim

DOB:-  14/02/1993

SOCIAL HISTORY:-           

Patient lives with boyfriend, Brad Park and their biological son in a one bedroom rental flat.

Employment Status:- Ashley part-time waitress in a Koran restaurant

Brad:- unemployed 18 months, binge drinker

Patient’s parents live in Seoul South Korea

Son:- Alex Park, 5 years old, single child, attends the child care centre when Ashley works

MEDICAL HISTORY:- 

Good past health

No known allergies 10/08/2017 attended emergency department AED with bruises over left face, right eye and forehead.

Examined by triage nurse @ triage station? Domestic abuse

Vital signs V/S Stable

Emotional:- weeping, avoidance

Patient claimed fell off the stairs, denied being assaulted by others

Assessed by the Medical Officer MO

x-ray XR Skull: no FRACTURE # seen

No active bleeding

Prescribed Hirudoid cream, referred to Clinical Psychologist (CP) for follow up

Patient refuses the referral and discharge home

17/10/2017

Attend Emergency Department AED with son. Personal Examination PE by Medical Officer MO with large bruises over Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) at abdomen, corner of mouth and right elbow.

USG: ABD: No internal bleeding, however checked x-ray CXR # LT 6TH RIB

Son:- crying and scared accompanied by hospital volunteers?

Domestic abuse. Suggest admission to r/o insidious bleeding of internal organ

Patient refused and denied abuses by others

Patient insisted of discharging

25/12/2017  

Attended AED with son. P/E by MO with some burn marks over four limbs

Caused by cigarettes, bruises over right face, bilateral eyes and forehead

XR Skull: no # CTB mild contusion over right frontal area, no bleeding

Suggest admission for further monitoring and referred to CP and MSW

Patient refused. Discharged home.

20/02/2018 Police Case Report

Son was locked up in the bedroom when violence occurred

Brad forced Ashley on to ground, poured pot of hot water on her. Ashley screamed and yelled for help.

Brad pointed a knife to Ashley.

Threatened to kill her if she called the police.

Son cried loudly. Neighbor was alarmed and called the police for her

Ambulance arrived and Ashley transferred to AED. Brad arrested by police.

Ashley assessed by MO

10% burn over bilateral lower limb

BP fluid resuscitation, no obvious injuries, RR? Pain

Admit to burn ward for further management

T/I to Burn Ward

Continue fluid resuscitation

4 morphine @ 1mg/hr. for pain

Commence prophylactic antibiotic: Flucloxacillin 1g 4 stat

Take Wound swab x C/ST

Arrange for OT X Surgical debridement

Cleanse wound by wound nurse a/c Burn Wound Management Protocol before OT suite available

Son cared by the Hospital Child Welfare Centre

Refer to CP to identify? PTSD X Ashley and son; counselling and emotional support for domestic violence causalities

Ashley’s GC: Not fit X statement, statement pending until MO’s decision

Writing Task    

You are a health professional working at the Brisbane Spirit Hospital Burn Ward. Using the information provided, write a referral letter to the director of the Women’s Shelter, Harmony West, 12 west, and St. Northbridge, QLD 4543.

Explain the reason for the referral, condition of the patient and the subsequent arrangement for Ashley and her son.

In your answer:-

Expand the relevant case notes into complete sentences

Do not use note form

Use correct letter format

The body of the letter should be approximately 180-200 words

As per the details given in the case notes the date today is 21/02/2018 and the first visit was on 10/08/2018 which means 6 months ago. The second visit was two months later dated 17/10/2017. The third visit to the health care centre was in another subsequent two months dated 25/12/2017. The current admission of the diseased is on 20.02.2018.

INTRODUCTION OF THE LETTER.

Dear Sir/Madam,

Re:- Ashley Kim DOB:- 10.02.1992

I am writing this letter to refer a 25 year old diseased Korean woman Ashley Kim who has been a victim of physical abuse but is fortunately on the verge of recovery from injuries.

Paragraph 1 reveals the social history of the patient Ashley Kim which would give a big picture of her to the Director of Women’s Health.

Social History

Patient lives with boyfriend, Brad Park and their biological son in a one bedroom rental flat. Ashley, part-time waitress in a Korean restaurant; Brad unemployed 18 months, binge drinker. Patient’s parents live in Seoul, South Korea. Son:- Alex Park, 5 years old, single child, attends the child care centre when Ashley works

Paragraph 1   

Ashley was residing with her boyfriend Brad Park and her five year old son, Alex Park. She was working as a part-time waitress but unfortunately Brad had been both unemployed for 18 months and had a history of being a binge drinker. Ashley’s son Alex was associating himself with a child care institute when Ashley was working.

The social history of Ashley Kim as depicted in the case notes is written as ‘patient lives’ but while transferring the case notes to a letter format, it is written as Ashley ‘was living’ The reason being that, Ashley was physically abused by Brad so it is most unlikely that Ashley would go back to live with him. She most probably may not return to her part time job either so there also the tense is she ‘was working’ although it is also presented as ‘works as’ in the case notes. Even her son Alex ‘was studying’ at a childcare centre as against he/she ‘attends’ a child care centre because the present situation is never the same after Ashely was subject to physical abuse.

MEDICAL HISTORY:- 

Good past health

No known allergies 10/08/2017 attended emergency department AED with bruises over left face, right eye and forehead.

Examined by triage nurse @ triage station? Domestic abuse

Vital signs V/S Stable

Emotional:- weeping, avoidance

Patient claimed fell off the stairs, denied being assaulted by others

Assessed by the Medical Officer MO

x-ray XR Skull: no FRACTURE # seen

No active bleeding

Prescribed Hirudoid cream, referred to Clinical Psychologist (CP) for follow up

Patient refuses the referral and discharge home

17/10/2017

Attend Emergency Department AED with son. Personal Examination PE by Medical Officer MO with large bruises over Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ) at abdomen, corner of mouth and right elbow.

USG: ABD: No internal bleeding, however checked x-ray CXR # LT 6TH RIB

Son:- crying and scared accompanied by hospital volunteers?

Domestic abuse. Suggest admission to r/o insidious bleeding of internal organ

Patient refused and denied abuses by others

Patient insisted of discharging

25/12/2017  

Attended AED with son. P/E by MO with some burn marks over four limbs

Caused by cigarettes, bruises over right face, bilateral eyes and forehead

XR Skull: no # CTB mild contusion over right frontal area, no bleeding

Suggest admission for further monitoring and referred to CP and MSW

Patient refused. Discharged home.

20/02/2018 Police Case Report

Son was locked up in the bedroom when violence occurred

Brad forced Ashley on to ground, poured pot of hot water on her. Ashley screamed and yelled for help.

Brad pointed a knife to Ashley.  

Threatened to kill her if she called the police.

Son cried loudly. Neighbor was alarmed and called the police for her

Ambulance arrived and Ashley transferred to AED. Brad arrested by police.

Ashley assessed by MO

10% burn over bilateral lower limb

BP fluid resuscitation, no obvious injuries, RR? Pain

Admit to burn ward for further management

T/I to Burn Ward

Continue fluid resuscitation

4 morphine @ 1mg/hr. for pain

Commence prophylactic antibiotic: Flucloxacillin 1g 4 stat

Take Wound swab x C/ST

Arrange for OT X Surgical debridement

Cleanse wound by wound nurse a/c Burn Wound Management Protocol before OT suite available

Son cared by the Hospital Child Welfare Centre

Refer to CP to identify? PTSD X Ashley and son; counselling and emotional support for domestic violence causalities

Ashley’s GC: Not fit X statement, statement pending until MO’s decision

The patient Ashley’s medical history need to be mentioned and this happened so on three different dates such as 10/08/2017, 17/10/2017 and 25/12/2017. These three earlier hospitalizations of Ashley needs to be summarized. All the details on three different dates must be presented in a condensed form. Whatever is highlighted in the medical history only need be presented in consolidated manner in a paragraph.

Paragraph 2

Since August 2017, Ashely who has been subject to hospitalization was admitted at the Emergency sector on three instances with a wide range of injuries, bruising, fractures and burns also. Exemplary diagnosis and treatment has been meted out to her each time. However Ashley has refused psychological support and also denied the possibility of a physical abuse.

The patient’s final visit on 20/02/2018 also need to be presented in a precise manner in yet another paragraph.

Paragraph 3

On 20/02/2018, a grave incident of domestic abuse was exposed as per the police case report wherein Ashely Kim was a victim of physical torture due to which she was subject to crucial burns on her lower limbs and her life itself was in jeopardy. A neighbor informed the police and Brad was taken to custody. She was transported by the ambulance to the emergency department and is currently being given medication and treatment for her burn injuries.

The case notes explains the physical abuse meted out to Ashley Kim by Brad at length but the same is summarized. Moreover, the passive sentences are used to present the letter in a very formal and professional manner. The neighbor communicating the violence against Ashley was also just briefed without explaining her emotional state. Even the medication given to her that was specified in detail as per case notes is written in a condensed form.

Paragraph 4 – Discharge Plan

Ashley’s son is nurtured at the health-care center’s Child Welfare Center. It is important to note that, they have also been brought to a clinical psychologist for practicable post-traumatic stress disorder followed by counselling and emotional support.

I would value it if you could provide shelter for Ashley and her son after discharge.

Yours sincerely,

(s

 

Present Perfect tense can be used when writing the discharge plan as the last paragraph of the letter. It shows that the action is completed with an outcome in the present situation. Expand the abbreviations given in the case notes. A polite closing line enables the reader to take action immediately. Usage of model verbs would and could transforms the sentence in a rather respectable manner. A lot of medical details had been specified in the case notes on what was done in the ward and if the letter were directed to a health-care professional, all the detailed presentation on diagnosis and treatment in the case notes would have been relevant, but in this case, since the letter is directed to the Director of Women’s Shelter, the relevance to detailed diagnosis and treatment is ruled out as Ashley Kim and her son Alex Park only need to be provided shelter at Women’s Shelter.

The final state of the medical referral letter is like this:-

To,

Director of the Women’s Shelter, Harmony West,

12 west, 

St. Northbridge, QLD 4543.

   

Dear Sir/Madam,

Re:- Ashley Kim DOB:- 10.02.1992

I am writing this letter to refer a 25 year old diseased Korean woman Ashley Kim who has been a victim of physical abuse but is fortunately on the verge of recovery from injuries.

Paragraph 1   

Ashley was residing with her boyfriend Brad Park and her five year old son, Alex Park. She was working as a part-time waitress but unfortunately Brad had been both unemployed for 18 months and had a history of being a binge drinker. Ashley’s son Alex was associating himself with a child care institute when Ashley was working.

Paragraph 2

Since August 2017, Ashely who has been subject to hospitalization was admitted at the emergency sector on three instances with a wide range of injuries, bruising, fractures and burns also. Exemplary diagnosis and treatment has been meted out to her each time. However, Ashley has refused psychological support and also denied the possibility of a physical abuse.

Paragraph 3

On 20/02/2018, a grave incident of domestic abuse was exposed as per the police case report wherein Ashely Kim was a victim of physical torture due to which she was subject to crucial burns on her lower limbs and her life itself was in jeopardy. A neighbor informed the police and Brad was taken to custody. She was transported by the ambulance to the emergency department and is currently being given medication and treatment for her burn injuries.

Paragraph 4 – Discharge Plan

Ashley’s son is nurtured at the health-care center’s Child Welfare Center. It is important to note that, they have also been brought to a clinical psychologist for practicable post-traumatic stress disorder followed by counselling and emotional support.

I would value it if you could provide shelter for Ashley and her son after discharge.

Yours Sincerely,

Health Care Professional

 

How to improve OET writing?

How to improve OET writing?

Test format and Duration

The writing test format is profession specific. This means the test completed is appropriate to the profession of the examinee. Yet another factor is that, regardless of any test takers profession, the test format of the OET writing module is the same. It is at almost all times the third test on test day. The task is to write a formal letter on a medical matter. It is usually a letter of referral although the reason for referral will vary. The writing task must be red first to know the reader to whom the letter must be addressed after which reading the case notes carefully to both understand the patient’s condition and also highlight only those aspects of the case notes that are essential for the reader. The time allocated for going through both the writing task and the case notes as well is 5 minutes. The duration to complete writing a referral letter is 40 minutes.

Assessment Criteria for OET writing:-

The first and foremost marking criteria is Purpose which is evaluated between 0-3 followed by Content, Consciousness and Clarity, Genre and Style, Organization and Layout as well as Language which are gauged separately between 0-7. To score a Grade B/350-440 which is equivalent to 7/7.5 band of IELTS, a score of 2/3 for purpose and atleast 5/7 each for the other criteria’s is a must. The purpose of the letter must be presented in a clear and straightforward manner. The content of the letter must be absolutely relevant to the reader. The selection of case notes which match the requirements of the addressee are important. Consciousness and Clarity means the length of the body paragraphs must be approximately 180-200 words which includes writing based on the selection of crucial case notes. As long as irrelevant case notes are not incorporated, the body paragraphs will not exceed 200 words. Genre and Style refers to the writing trend which must be at all times both clinical and factual. Organization and Layout of the letter is based on stating the purpose with precision and expanding the same by adding information. The details that are critical for readers who must act on the letter addressed to them must be elucidated properly. The paragraph to state the purpose of the letter must be separated from the body paragraphs. The initial address and the opening as well as closing salutation must be done in a minute after which the letter must be drafted in about 39 minutes. Language analysis is done on the basis of precise word power, correct sentence structures, grammatical accuracy and spelling the words correctly followed by appropriate usage of punctuation.  A minimum of two trained OET assessors independently mark the candidates’ performance and neither knows what scores the other assessors have given. Each assessor marks the candidates on the stated criteria’s. Any border line assessment or assessment scores that do not match will be assessed by a third independent assessor to ensure that the grade received is valid and fair.

Prepare for OET writing:-

Considering the reader is very important while writing a referral letter. Each writing task will be about a different patient. It has a different health care situation and therefore different case notes. This means it is essential that the letter must be personalized by making choices of what to write, how to write it and how to avoid template answers that may not be appropriate for that situation.

The writing task comes at the end of the case notes. Read the writing task first when the reading time starts as it conveys the most important information. Who you are writing to and why are you writing to him/her?

Using the information given in the case notes write a discharge letter to Ms. Georgine Pons ford, Resident Community nurse at the Community Retirement Home, 103 Light Street, Newton. This letter will accompany Mr. Ramamurthy back to the retirement home upon his discharge tomorrow. In your answer:- expand the relevant notes into complete sentences, do not use the note form, use letter format.

As per this writing task, the reader of the letter already knows the patient which will influence the inclusion of details in the letter. After going through the writing task, the balance time must be utilized in understanding the case notes and identifying the information to either include or omit. In this example, the reader would know the information that Mr. Ramamurthy’s discharge date is 11th February 2014 but it would be logical to include it as a part of the reason for writing. On the other hand, the details on past medical history and social background is known by the reader but it is not relevant to include as it does relate to the current situation.

Admission Date:- 4th February 2014, Discharge Date:- 11th February 2014,Diagnosis:- Pneumonia, Past Medical History:- Osteoarthritis (mainly fingers) – Voltaren, Eye sight ! Due to cataracts removed 16 months ago – needs check-up, Social Background:- Retired school teacher (History, Mathematics), financially independent, lonely since wife died. Weight loss – associated with poor diet.  The information which is both new to the reader and to be incorporated are the particulars on Medical History, Nursing Management, Assessment and Discharge Plan. One of the choices to be made to write a good letter is the structure which means the given information in the case notes must be presented in an orderly manner and that too in the order of importance. Medical Progress:- Afebrile, inflammatory markers back to normal, slow but independent walk & shower/toilet, dry cough, some chest and abdomen pain, weight gain post residual volume right ventricle r/v by dietitian. Nursing Management:- Encourage oral fluids, proper nutrition, Ambulant as per physio residual volume right ventricle r/v, Encourage chest physio (deep breathing and coughing exercises). Sitting preferred to lying down to ensure postural drainage. Assessment:- Good progress overall. Discharge plan:- Paracetamol if necessary for chest/abdomen, pain. Keep warm, good nutrition, eggs, fruit, vegetables (needs help monitoring diet). Afebrile and Encourage oral fluids, proper nutrition are unimportant particulars either because it is outdated or could be assumed by the reader. It can be omitted or it could be included as extra contextual details if wanted and time allowed. Likewise, inflammatory markers back to normal, weight gain post r/v by dietitian and encourage chest physio (deep breathing and coughing exercises) are less important eventhough the useful information about the patient’s care while in hospital is specified to the reader but has no impact on the care of the patient’s post discharge. The most important information which is highlighted on this page are slow but independent walk & shower/toilet, ambulant as per physio r/v, sitting preferred to lying down to ensure a postural drainage, good progress overall, Paracetamol, if necessary for chest/abdomen pain, keep warm, good nutrition – fluids, eggs, fruit, vegetables (needs help monitoring diet). These particulars are essential for the reader who understands how to continue the patient’s care and what to expect in terms of the patient’s independence. Which order is to be followed to write this information and which case notes can be combined into a sentence are further choices to be made.

To,

The Resident Community Nurse,

Retirement Home,

103, Height Street,

New Town.

Dear Ms. Georgina Pons ford,

I am writing this letter in connection with the discharge of Mr. Ramamurthy dated 11th February 2014 who would rejoin retirement home after a successful diagnosis and treatment for pneumonia since his hospitalization a week before.

After a rigorous care at the health-care hub since 4th February, Mr. Ramamurthy was gradually able to walk without any support to the loo and shower. Thanks to the efforts of the physiotherapist, whose physio right ventricular remedy has really enabled the diseased get over a bedridden sort of situation? In addition to the stated medical care, postural drainage was performed in a sitting posture as it was more preferred to being prostrate. After successfully administering the treatment for pneumonia, Mr. Ramamurthy’s health status progressed remarkably.

After his discharge, he will be inducted to the nurturing at the retirement home and the further medication to be given is Paracetamol in case he suffers from chest or abdominal  pain and not otherwise. In addition to this stated remedial measure, the care givers at the retirement home must also keep Mr. Ramamurthy warm at all times. Most importantly, a very nutritious cuisine is to be administered namely fluids, fruit, vegetables and eggs. Monitoring his diet is compulsory as that would be ideal to help him become absolutely hale and healthy at all times.

In the light of what is expressed, I hope the management of retirement home would shower abundant hospitality and care for Mr. Ramamurthy which will help him overcome his diseased condition.

The structure of any referral letter is never the same. It may be so that the letter expects test takers to write on any emergency sort of situation or to non-health care professionals for example, a social worker, allied health professional/specialist for example, an occupational therapist or rheumatologist, updating a health care professional who is already involved with the patient’s situation. These varied situations will have to be taken into account while providing the best structure for the letter which can only help examinees get a good score.

Passive sentence structures are the most appropriate for referral letters as the patient or treatment happens to be the focus of the sentence. The example that puts the writer as the first sentence is as follows:- I arranged an MRI scan for Miss. Kapoor. Here it need not be presented in a direct manner on who made the arrangement. It would be better to place the treatment and the patient at the commencement of the sentence. The example in the active sentence can be changed to passive form namely An MRI scan for Miss. Kapoor has been arranged for Tuesday. The verb tense used in the passive form creates the intended meaning. It is likely that a variety of tenses may have to be used in the letter and if a mistake is made in the choice, it can lead to confusions for the reader. The sentences in Present simple, past simple or even present perfect conveys different meanings. For instance, He is unsteady on his feet (states the current situation), He was unsteady on his feet (states the past situation) and He has been unsteady on his feet (an unresolved situation).

To summarize:-  The best ways to prepare for writing are:- practice writing about a variety of health-care conditions to a variety of readers and for a variety of reasons. Practice writing as per the stipulated duration with the stationary you plan to use on test day. A pen or a pencil can be used for the writing test but be comfortable with the choice and practice using any one of them. If possible get a feedback on your writing and make a check list of common mistakes thereby referring to them each time a new letter is written. Go through the official sample answers for writing tasks but do not use them as template structures to be learned or phrases to be memorized. However, sample answers can be helpful in demonstrating letter layouts and a model for clear and explicit professional language using a variety of grammatical structures.

In order to do exceptionally well for OET writing on test day, the tips for reading time in the writing test are as follows:- Read the writing task first to find out the reader and purpose of your letter. Read the case notes slowly. At the end of each line of long case notes, ask as to whether the reader needs it or not in order to omit the unnecessary case notes and incorporate the crucial ones. After reading the case notes, think about the reader and how can the significant case notes be explained adequately to make them suit the situation of the letter.

During writing time, consider spending a few minutes for planning, mark the case notes using the decisions made during the reading time. Cross out any case notes to be omitted and mark out A, B or C to know how important they are to the reader. Plan the topic of each paragraph so it is clear on what case notes must be incorporated on each of the paragraphs. In case there are any mistakes while writing, cross it out clearly and carry on. The letter must be ended properly. If need be, in case the test taker is running short of time, a few lines space can be left out and the last part of the letter can be written after which the final paragraph can also be written. It is necessary to allocate a few minutes to proof read the letter. The writer must write the letter considering the reader who is to read and take necessary action for which the sufficient matter that concerns the reader most must be provided effectively. Do not worry about the word limit as if the relevant particulars are selected to draft the letter thereby eliminating the unwanted information. The examiners do not count the number of words but assesses whether the information included helps or hinders the reader’s accurate understanding of the situation.              

How to improve OET Reading?

How to improve OET Reading?

 

The OET Reading sub-test begins with the test format which is common for all the health-care professionals followed by tips to help test takers prepare before the test and how to succeed on test day. Reading comprehension has three parts namely part A, B and C. Part A has 4 short texts whose word limit is not more than 650 and atleast 20 questions. The total duration for Part A is just 15 minutes which is completed separately and submitted to the invigilator. The question types are Matching, Gap filling and short answers. Part B and Part C together must be completed within 45 minutes. The total duration for the test is 60 minutes. Part B is an MCQ task which includes 6 short passages with a question per text which means a total of 6 MCQ’s must be comprehended. Each article has atleast 100-150 words. Part C is also depicts MCQ’s has two passages which are the longest and their word limited are 750-850 words each with 16 questions which means 8 questions per text. The total number of questions to be answered are 42. Each question carries equal weightage in marking which means the overall score is calculated out of 42 marks. The OET Reading Part A, B and C tests different reading skills. Part A expects the candidates to skim the passage which means read quickly to familiarize with the important points and scan also wherein going through all areas of a particular paragraph to locate some feature that could be closer to the answers of questions. Part B testing focus is on reading for gist – substance or general meaning of the passage, purpose – understanding the objectives of the lines given in any article, main points – the most crucial aspect or the central idea of the text and detail – description or explanation of particulars. Part C skill assessment areas are different from that of both Part A and B as well. Part C examines the trainees’ abilities to select answers by way of inference – a conclusion arrived at on the basis of proof and reasoning, attitude – the point of view as per the explanations in the text and opinion – a judgment or a belief arrived at after going through the various aspects of any text. The passages read in Reading Part A are work place texts which is based on consultation of patients to provide them the most appropriate treatments. Reading treatment protocols, medication information, treatment parts or diagnosis tools are some of the chosen extracts for Part A.

In order to do well in Part A reading comprehension questions, read for a detailed picture on the subject related to work place situations in a typical health-care setting written in English in addition to specifically setting the device controls and menus to English, timetables and restaurant menus to English and use English-English dictionaries. These techniques can help test takers improve their English skills which would enable them to both skim and scan perfectly well as a consequence of which the selected answers for the questions would be almost always correct.

Another methodology to improve scanning in Part A of the reading test is to complete word searches. This could be an ideal training to help any candidate scan all over the text rather than just beginning to scan from the opening lines of the passage and reading the information in order. When completing a word search it is important to notice what makes a word different from others. For Example, Does it contain unusual letters such as X, Z or J? Does it contain double letters SS, PP or LL? Does it contain unusual letter combinations namely U, A, O, I, P, H?

N R E S P O N D U H
L O W J E H R O E J
L S Q E R Z I G X A
K S B R S Q E Q P P
S G K U U I W A L N
A C N S A N V V A E
N K K S D F W K I M
B W N A E O F L N G
O K L E D R J A R R
Q C G R C M M Q O C

 

An example on Part A questions are:-

READING PART A MINI PRACTICE  

TEXT A TABLE 6 SEVERITY ASSESSMENT 2MINUTE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Infants                          Mild to moderate                               Severe     

Infants’                     <38.5 degrees centigrade                  >38.5 degrees centigrade

Respiratory rate                                Respiratory rate

50 breaths per minute                       70 breaths per minute

Mild Recession                                 moderate to severe recession

Taking full feeds                              nasal flaring

Cyanosis

Intermittent apnoea

Grunting respiration

Not feeding

Tachycardia *

Capillary refill time 2

 

 

 

 

 

Older children             <38.5 degrees centigrade                >38.5 degrees centigrade

Respiratory rate                              Respiratory rate

50 breaths per minute                     50 breaths per minute

Mild breathlessness                        severe difficulty in breathing

No vomiting                                    Nasal Flaring

Cyanosis

Grunting respiration

Signs of dehydration

Tachycardia *

Capillary refill time 2

  1. This text provides information regarding
  2. The treatment protocol for a child with severe case of pneumonia
  3. Establishing the seriousness of a case of pneumonia in a baby
  4. How much medication to provide a child with pneumonia
  5. An infant who is still accepting ________________ is more likely to have mild to moderate than severe pneumonia
  6. How many breaths per day can indicate pneumonia in a baby?
  7. What two factors must be considered while assessing whether a child has tachycardia?
  8. A pediatric patient with a temperature of 38 degrees centigrade would be considered to have _________________ pneumonia.

A passage on severity assessment is given without directly stating that it is for pneumonia. The first question is, this text provides information regarding, read the text and answer the question after locating the same with precision. The text is a table on severity assessment where the degree of severity is stated as an initial phase from ‘mild to moderate’ and ‘severe’ which must be read carefully. The infants and older children’s symptoms of a disease vary greatly.

The three options for question 1 are:-

  1. The treatment protocol for a child with a severe case of pneumonia
  2. Establishing the seriousness of a case of pneumonia in a baby
  3. How much medication to provide a child with pneumonia

This passage does not talk about treatment, symptoms and medications as well, so option b is the correct answer.

Question 2 is a gap fill type.

An infant who is still accepting (something) is more likely to have mild to moderate than sever pneumonia. As per this question, the answer is given on the second column ‘mild to moderate’. The answer to be given is ‘taking full feeds’. The words to be incorporated is ‘full feeds’, ‘taking’ is same as that of ‘accepting’. It is important to write ‘full feeds’ itself than ‘feeds’ or ‘feed’ to get the answer correct. Copy and paste the answer ‘full feeds’ on the gap to complete the sentence and no adjustments are required.

Question 3 is how many breaths per minute may indicate severe pneumonia in a baby?

The answer is given at column three labelled ‘severe’. The answer is more than 70 or > 70.

Question 4 is what two factors must be considered when considering whether a child has tachycardia?  The word ‘tachycardia’ for infants is not applicable because it is for a child. The word tachycardia is followed by an * whenever the * is given, it means check the bottom of the text, some of the answers can also be presented at the bottom of the text. The answer is age and temperature.

Question 5 is a pediatric patient with temperature of 38 degrees centigrade would be considered to have _____________ pneumonia. The answer is ‘mild to moderate’. The word with the symbol given under the column ‘mild to moderate’ is less than 38.5 degree.

The passage to be read in Reading Comprehension Part B are also work place texts that are short passages and may not necessarily be the whole extract on any work place scenario as it had been originally drafted but will contain all the information needed to answer the questions. It might be based on updates, policy documents, memo’s/e-mails or guidelines on typical type of work place communication between colleagues. The preparation methodology for Part B Reading Comprehension is reading for the main idea from short health care articles. It would be possible to do so by making use of work place documentation that are already accessible at work spots. Alternatively, reading online health care articles or even types of information found on notice boards and waiting rooms for doctors or dental practice are other ways to enhance reading skills to perform exemplarily in Part B reading comprehension also. For Example, the article on correct identification and procedures for patients are broken down into small sections with sub headings. Each of the sections can be read and find out the main point emphasized in each of them.

Annual Medication Review

To give all patients an annual medication review is an ideal to strive for. In the meantime there is an argument for targeting all clinical medication reviews to those patients likely to benefit most.

Our guidelines state that, atleast a level two medication review will occur. The minimum standard is a treatment review of medicines with the full notes but not necessarily with the patient present. However, the guidelines go on to say ‘all patients should have a chance to raise questions and highlight problems about their medicines’ and that ‘any changes resulting from the review are agreed with the patient’.

It also states that GP practices are expected to

Minimize waste in prescribing and avoid ineffective treatments

Engage effectively in the prevention of ill health

Avoid the need for costly treatments by proactively managing patients to recover through the whole care pathway.

  1. The guidelines require those undertaking a clinical medication review to
  2. Involve the patient (in their decisions) noun phrase
  3. Consider the cost (of any change in treatments) noun phrase
  4. Recommend other services (as an alternative to medication) noun phrase

Each text begins with a context statement which helps test takers understand what the purpose of the text is. As stated in the opening lines of the passage it is ‘medication review’ and the question also states almost a similar context statement ‘a clinical medication review’. The context is given in the stem which is an incomplete sentence and the three options A, B and C also has a verb phrase which forms a part of each answer option namely ‘involve the patient’, ‘consider the cost’ and ‘recommend other services’ and these varied information must be understood easily that helps to arrive at the correct option (the answer). In this example the action is provided in a verb phrase whereas the detail of the action is in a noun phrase such as ‘in their decisions’, ‘of any change in treatments’ and ‘as an alternative to medication’.

Our guidelines state that, atleast a level two medication review will occur. The minimum standard is a treatment review of medicines with the full notes but not necessarily with the patient present. Lines 3 and 4 from this passage appears to prove that option A is incorrect but by continuing to read and noticing the word however, ‘any changes resulting from the review are agreed with the patient’ indicates the main point which provides evidence that option A is the correct answer.  As it is important to locate the correct option, one must also know why the other options such as B and C are wrong. These lines from the text ‘It also states that GP practices are expected to avoid the need for costly treatments by proactively managing patients to recover through the whole care pathway’ does not match option B which states consider the cost (of any change in treatments) as it is so in the answer option, costs are not stated in relation to changes in treatment. Likewise, minimize the waste in prescribing and avoid ineffective treatments as given in the passage has no direct reference to alternatives in medication but the inclusion of this phrase could be inferred to mean the same thing, so it does not agree with Option C Recommend other services (as an alternative to medication).

The two longer texts in Reading Comprehension Part C to be read are on general health care topics and would most probably be in an article format. They may not be the complete passage but will definitely contain sufficient information to answer the text. To perform exceptionally well in Reading Part C, it is necessary to practice reading for the writer’s perspective in English. The texts include a number of different opinion pieces, so reading texts which are more opinionated and factual will be a good practice. Other types of passages that will be good to read regularly are journals of professional regulatory bodies and review articles on research papers. There are opinion questions, main idea questions, and vocabulary and phrase questions. It is necessary to apply critical thinking skills which can help the test taker make better choices when it comes to answering MCQ’s. Read analytically means read and understand the questions, read the text and work out the main idea and read the answer choices. While doing this underline the key words in both the questions as well as the answer choices and in the text you must think deeply and analyze as you go. Another part of critical thinking is logical reasoning so the answer choices vary commonly where different words are used, preferably synonyms, or summarizing techniques also of the main ideas so the answer options will have different words in comparison to the explanations given in the passage and it is important to read between the lines for understanding the deeper meaning and that is where logical reasoning is prioritized to the core.

The first strategy to approach reading part C questions are the QTA method which means questions – text – answers. It means read the question stem, then read the text and then read the answer choices.  To manage time effectively, the question stem must be read in 15 seconds to understand what is asked and then read the paragraph and thereby underline key words and understanding relationships between ideas and looking out for signal words such as ‘but’ or ‘however’ or ‘for this reason’ or ‘the way ideas are linked together’.  A minute can be allocated to read the text and there are four answer choices that can be gone through in depth after which the incorrect answer choices can be ruled out and the answer that matches can be corrected which would be for a time span of 1 minute and a total duration of 2 minutes 15 seconds allocated per question. For example:- question 1 in the first paragraph, what is the writer’s attitude to the new programme? Here to find out the answer for this type of question, it is significant to read between the lines because the meaning would be a lot deeper so the approach to select a particular attitude or so as highlighted in the text may not be the right approach to find out the answer.

In the first paragraph, question 1 what is the writer’s attitude towards the new programme? (15seconds to read the question)

Text 1:- A US doctor gives his views on a new program. (1 minute to read the passage)

An important component of a patient’s history and physical examination is the question of ‘medical compliance’, the term used by physicians to designate whether, or not, a patient is taking his or her medications. Many a hospital chart bears the notorious comment ‘patient has a history of non-compliance’. Now, under a new experimental programme in Philadelphia, USA, patients are being paid to take their medications. The concept makes sense in theory – failure to comply is one of the most common reasons that patients are readmitted to hospital shortly after being discharged.  

The options are as follows:- (1 minute to choose the correct answer)

  1. He doubts that it is correctly named
  2. He appreciates the reason behind it
  3. He is skeptical about whether it can work
  4. He is more enthusiastic than some other doctors

Option A he doubts that it is correctly named (this option is ruled out as no name is given)

Option C he is skeptical about whether it can work (not given in this paragraph)

Option D he is more enthusiastic than some other doctors (no other doctors mentioned)

Option B he appreciates the reasons behind it (the concept makes sense in theory: reasons behind failure to comply). The patient’s failure to comply, they don’t take their medications and that’s why they have considered this programme.

The second strategy is the QAT Method is a Question – Answer – Text method. It means read the question followed by the answer options also and then go through the passage. Question 2 in the second paragraph, the writer suggests that the of category of non-compliance is

  1. Elderly patients who are given occasional assistance (not occasional it’s daily)
  2. Patients who are over-prescribed with a certain drug (incorrect no mention of “overprescribed”. Pills are vital.
  3. Busy working people who mean to be complaint (correct answer) well intentioned
  4. People who are by nature vary of taking pills (not given)

Text 2

Compliant patients take their medications because they want to live as long as possible; some simply do so because they are responsible, conscientious individuals by nature. But the hustle and bustle of daily life and employment often get in the way of taking medications, especially those that are timed inconveniently or in frequent dozes even for such well-intentioned patients. For the elderly and the mentally or physically impaired, US insurance companies will often pay for a daily visit by a nurse, to ensure a patient gets at least one set of the most vital pills. But other patients are left to fend for themselves, and it is not uncommon these days for patients to be taking a considerable number of vital pills daily.

Question 3 what problem with some patients are described in the third paragraph?

Text 3

Some patients have not been educated properly been educated about the importance of their medications in layman’s terms. They told me, for instance, they don’t have high blood pressure because they were once prescribed a high blood pressure pill – in essence, they view an antihypertensive as an antibiotic that can be used as a short-term treatment for a short-term problem. Others have told me that they never had a heart attack because they were taken to cardiac catheterization lab and ‘fixed’. As physicians were responsible for making sure patients understand their own medical history and their own medications.

  1. They forget which prescribed medication is for which condition (not given)
  2. They fail to recognize that some medical conditions require ongoing treatment (correct)
  3. They don’t understand their treatment even when it is explained in simple terms (incorrect)
  4. They believe that taking some prescribed pills means they don’t need to take others. (not given)

Question 4 what does the writer say about the side effects of medication?

  1. Doctors need to have better plans in place if they develop (easy to rule out as no comparison with a better plan)
  2. There is too much misleading information about them online (it does not say the side effects are misleading)
  3. Fear of them can waste a lot of unnecessary consultation time (not the focus)
  4. Patients need to be informed about the likelihood of them occurring (there are some risks but there are many benefits correct)

Text 4

Not uncommonly patients will say, ‘I go ogled it the other day, and there are a long list of side effects’. But a simple conversation with the patient at this juncture can easily change their perspective. As with many things in medicine, it’s all about risks versus benefits – that’s what we as physicians are trained to analyze. And patients can be rest assured that, we will monitor them closely for side effects and address any that are unpleasant, either by treating them or trying a different medication.

Question 5 what objection to the programme does the writer make in the sixth paragraph?

Text 5

Although a simple financial programme has its appeal, its complications abound. What’s worse, it seems to be saying to the society: as physicians, we tell our patients that not only do we work to care for them, but we will now pay them to take better care of themselves. And by the way for all your medication complaint patients out there, you can have the inherent reward of a longer, healthier life, but we are not going to bother sending you money. This seems like some sort of implied punishment.  

  1. It will be counterproductive (incorrect)
  2. It will place heavy demand on doctors (incorrect)
  3. It sends the wrong message to patients (pay non complaint patients) (don’t pay non complaint patients) correct
  4. It is a simplistic idea that falls on its details (the programme may be simple, but the details is not where it falls down. It’s the “principle”. That’s the issue. (Incorrect)

Question 6

The writer suggests about his grandmother

  1. May ultimately have benefited from her non-compliance (correct got what she wanted)
  2. Would have appreciated closer medical supervision (not given)
  3. Might have underestimated how ill she was (not given)
  4. Should have followed the doctor’s advice (close but rule out with the last three sentences). Incorrect

Text 6

When discussing the complicated nuances compliance with my students, I given the example of my grandmother. A thrifty, no nonsense woman, she routinely sliced all the cholesterol and my heart disease pills her doctor prescribed in half, taking only half the dose. If I questioned this, she would wave me off with, ‘what do those doctors know anyway?’ sadly she died, suddenly, aged 87, most likely of a massive heart attack, had she taken the medicines at the appropriate doses, she might have survived it. But maybe she would have died a more painful death from some other ailment. Her biggest fear had always been ending up in a nursing home, and by luck or design, she was able to avoid that. Perhaps there was some wisdom in her ‘non-compliance’.

To summarize, the best way to prepare for OET Reading is as follows:- Read a variety of texts on a variety of health care topics. Do not be tempted to read with your dictionary, train yourself to familiarize with unfamiliar vocabulary in texts. Checking words as you read won’t help you to do this. Save the dictionary until the article is completely read. Use an English-English dictionary to look up for unknown words. Do complete the official practice tests so that you are familiar with the format of reading tests.  Spend time improving reading skills. This will make the most noticeable difference in the scores on test day. Develop strategies for time management. Do some practice for reading tasks using a clock for Part A. Learn to split your time for reading Part B and C so that you have enough time on each task?

To score exceptionally well in reading Part A, at the start of the time, quickly glance at the four texts to understand the topics and to get an idea on the difference in content between them. Use this information to help you answer the section of questions matching information to one of the texts. This section is designed to orient you to the contents of the text. Use some key vocabulary and do section 2 and section 3. Make sure the answered are copied accurately from the text. Don’t be too worried about the time. Work slowly and steadily through the questions, if there is anything you can’t answer quickly, you should have time to go back and answer that question and notice the differences between them. During reading Part B use the context heading to understand the purpose and type of each text. Read the three answer options carefully and notice the differences between them. Underline key words if it is helpful. Check the text for all of the answers. You should be able to find evidence on why one of the answers is correct and others are wrong. Remember all parts of the answer options must be covered by the text. Manage your time as 45 minutes is the total duration for Part B and C. You will probably need to complete answering all the questions in Part B by 10 minutes so another 35 minutes is required to answers questions that fall under Part C. In reading Part C, remember the questions sequentially move through the text. You will not need to return to earlier content to answer subsequent questions. Read the question and four answer options carefully because it important to understand the meaning of the words in combination and not just the definition of words. If you cannot answer a question quickly, you know you find some types of questions easier, move on and complete the easier ones and come back to the ambiguous ones later. You need not need to get a previous question correct to get the next question correct, if you find one question difficult don’t let it distract you, forget it and move on to the next one. Manage your time to leave an equal amount of time per text. Ideally you will have around 35 minutes for Part C which includes some time to get back to the unanswered questions in the end.