How to improve OET writing?

by Mahesh Chandra Bhatt | Jan 29, 2021 | OET

Test format and Duration

The writing test format is profession specific. This means the test completed is appropriate to the profession of the examinee. Yet another factor is that, regardless of any test takers profession, the test format of the OET writing module is the same. It is at almost all times the third test on test day. The task is to write a formal letter on a medical matter. It is usually a letter of referral although the reason for referral will vary. The writing task must be red first to know the reader to whom the letter must be addressed after which reading the case notes carefully to both understand the patient’s condition and also highlight only those aspects of the case notes that are essential for the reader. The time allocated for going through both the writing task and the case notes as well is 5 minutes. The duration to complete writing a referral letter is 40 minutes.

Assessment Criteria for OET writing:-

The first and foremost marking criteria is Purpose which is evaluated between 0-3 followed by Content, Consciousness and Clarity, Genre and Style, Organization and Layout as well as Language which are gauged separately between 0-7. To score a Grade B/350-440 which is equivalent to 7/7.5 band of IELTS, a score of 2/3 for purpose and atleast 5/7 each for the other criteria’s is a must. The purpose of the letter must be presented in a clear and straightforward manner. The content of the letter must be absolutely relevant to the reader. The selection of case notes which match the requirements of the addressee are important. Consciousness and Clarity means the length of the body paragraphs must be approximately 180-200 words which includes writing based on the selection of crucial case notes. As long as irrelevant case notes are not incorporated, the body paragraphs will not exceed 200 words. Genre and Style refers to the writing trend which must be at all times both clinical and factual. Organization and Layout of the letter is based on stating the purpose with precision and expanding the same by adding information. The details that are critical for readers who must act on the letter addressed to them must be elucidated properly. The paragraph to state the purpose of the letter must be separated from the body paragraphs. The initial address and the opening as well as closing salutation must be done in a minute after which the letter must be drafted in about 39 minutes. Language analysis is done on the basis of precise word power, correct sentence structures, grammatical accuracy and spelling the words correctly followed by appropriate usage of punctuation.  A minimum of two trained OET assessors independently mark the candidates’ performance and neither knows what scores the other assessors have given. Each assessor marks the candidates on the stated criteria’s. Any border line assessment or assessment scores that do not match will be assessed by a third independent assessor to ensure that the grade received is valid and fair.

Prepare for OET writing:-

Considering the reader is very important while writing a referral letter. Each writing task will be about a different patient. It has a different health care situation and therefore different case notes. This means it is essential that the letter must be personalized by making choices of what to write, how to write it and how to avoid template answers that may not be appropriate for that situation.

The writing task comes at the end of the case notes. Read the writing task first when the reading time starts as it conveys the most important information. Who you are writing to and why are you writing to him/her?

Using the information given in the case notes write a discharge letter to Ms. Georgine Pons ford, Resident Community nurse at the Community Retirement Home, 103 Light Street, Newton. This letter will accompany Mr. Ramamurthy back to the retirement home upon his discharge tomorrow. In your answer:- expand the relevant notes into complete sentences, do not use the note form, use letter format.

As per this writing task, the reader of the letter already knows the patient which will influence the inclusion of details in the letter. After going through the writing task, the balance time must be utilized in understanding the case notes and identifying the information to either include or omit. In this example, the reader would know the information that Mr. Ramamurthy’s discharge date is 11^th February 2014 but it would be logical to include it as a part of the reason for writing. On the other hand, the details on past medical history and social background is known by the reader but it is not relevant to include as it does relate to the current situation.

Admission Date:- 4^th February 2014, Discharge Date:- 11th February 2014,Diagnosis:- Pneumonia, Past Medical History:- Osteoarthritis (mainly fingers) – Voltaren, Eye sight ! Due to cataracts removed 16 months ago – needs check-up, Social Background:- Retired school teacher (History, Mathematics), financially independent, lonely since wife died. Weight loss – associated with poor diet.  The information which is both new to the reader and to be incorporated are the particulars on Medical History, Nursing Management, Assessment and Discharge Plan. One of the choices to be made to write a good letter is the structure which means the given information in the case notes must be presented in an orderly manner and that too in the order of importance. Medical Progress:- Afebrile, inflammatory markers back to normal, slow but independent walk & shower/toilet, dry cough, some chest and abdomen pain, weight gain post residual volume right ventricle r/v by dietitian. Nursing Management:- Encourage oral fluids, proper nutrition, Ambulant as per physio residual volume right ventricle r/v, Encourage chest physio (deep breathing and coughing exercises). Sitting preferred to lying down to ensure postural drainage. Assessment:- Good progress overall. Discharge plan:- Paracetamol if necessary for chest/abdomen, pain. Keep warm, good nutrition, eggs, fruit, vegetables (needs help monitoring diet). Afebrile and Encourage oral fluids, proper nutrition are unimportant particulars either because it is outdated or could be assumed by the reader. It can be omitted or it could be included as extra contextual details if wanted and time allowed. Likewise, inflammatory markers back to normal, weight gain post r/v by dietitian and encourage chest physio (deep breathing and coughing exercises) are less important eventhough the useful information about the patient’s care while in hospital is specified to the reader but has no impact on the care of the patient’s post discharge. The most important information which is highlighted on this page are slow but independent walk & shower/toilet, ambulant as per physio r/v, sitting preferred to lying down to ensure a postural drainage, good progress overall, Paracetamol, if necessary for chest/abdomen pain, keep warm, good nutrition – fluids, eggs, fruit, vegetables (needs help monitoring diet). These particulars are essential for the reader who understands how to continue the patient’s care and what to expect in terms of the patient’s independence. Which order is to be followed to write this information and which case notes can be combined into a sentence are further choices to be made.

To,

The Resident Community Nurse,

Retirement Home,

103, Height Street,

New Town.

Dear Ms. Georgina Pons ford,

I am writing this letter in connection with the discharge of Mr. Ramamurthy dated 11^th February 2014 who would rejoin retirement home after a successful diagnosis and treatment for pneumonia since his hospitalization a week before.

After a rigorous care at the health-care hub since 4^th February, Mr. Ramamurthy was gradually able to walk without any support to the loo and shower. Thanks to the efforts of the physiotherapist, whose physio right ventricular remedy has really enabled the diseased get over a bedridden sort of situation? In addition to the stated medical care, postural drainage was performed in a sitting posture as it was more preferred to being prostrate. After successfully administering the treatment for pneumonia, Mr. Ramamurthy’s health status progressed remarkably.

After his discharge, he will be inducted to the nurturing at the retirement home and the further medication to be given is Paracetamol in case he suffers from chest or abdominal  pain and not otherwise. In addition to this stated remedial measure, the care givers at the retirement home must also keep Mr. Ramamurthy warm at all times. Most importantly, a very nutritious cuisine is to be administered namely fluids, fruit, vegetables and eggs. Monitoring his diet is compulsory as that would be ideal to help him become absolutely hale and healthy at all times.

In the light of what is expressed, I hope the management of retirement home would shower abundant hospitality and care for Mr. Ramamurthy which will help him overcome his diseased condition.

The structure of any referral letter is never the same. It may be so that the letter expects test takers to write on any emergency sort of situation or to non-health care professionals for example, a social worker, allied health professional/specialist for example, an occupational therapist or rheumatologist, updating a health care professional who is already involved with the patient’s situation. These varied situations will have to be taken into account while providing the best structure for the letter which can only help examinees get a good score.

Passive sentence structures are the most appropriate for referral letters as the patient or treatment happens to be the focus of the sentence. The example that puts the writer as the first sentence is as follows:- I arranged an MRI scan for Miss. Kapoor. Here it need not be presented in a direct manner on who made the arrangement. It would be better to place the treatment and the patient at the commencement of the sentence. The example in the active sentence can be changed to passive form namely An MRI scan for Miss. Kapoor has been arranged for Tuesday. The verb tense used in the passive form creates the intended meaning. It is likely that a variety of tenses may have to be used in the letter and if a mistake is made in the choice, it can lead to confusions for the reader. The sentences in Present simple, past simple or even present perfect conveys different meanings. For instance, He is unsteady on his feet (states the current situation), He was unsteady on his feet (states the past situation) and He has been unsteady on his feet (an unresolved situation).

To summarize:-  The best ways to prepare for writing are:- practice writing about a variety of health-care conditions to a variety of readers and for a variety of reasons. Practice writing as per the stipulated duration with the stationary you plan to use on test day. A pen or a pencil can be used for the writing test but be comfortable with the choice and practice using any one of them. If possible get a feedback on your writing and make a check list of common mistakes thereby referring to them each time a new letter is written. Go through the official sample answers for writing tasks but do not use them as template structures to be learned or phrases to be memorized. However, sample answers can be helpful in demonstrating letter layouts and a model for clear and explicit professional language using a variety of grammatical structures.

In order to do exceptionally well for OET writing on test day, the tips for reading time in the writing test are as follows:- Read the writing task first to find out the reader and purpose of your letter. Read the case notes slowly. At the end of each line of long case notes, ask as to whether the reader needs it or not in order to omit the unnecessary case notes and incorporate the crucial ones. After reading the case notes, think about the reader and how can the significant case notes be explained adequately to make them suit the situation of the letter.

During writing time, consider spending a few minutes for planning, mark the case notes using the decisions made during the reading time. Cross out any case notes to be omitted and mark out A, B or C to know how important they are to the reader. Plan the topic of each paragraph so it is clear on what case notes must be incorporated on each of the paragraphs. In case there are any mistakes while writing, cross it out clearly and carry on. The letter must be ended properly. If need be, in case the test taker is running short of time, a few lines space can be left out and the last part of the letter can be written after which the final paragraph can also be written. It is necessary to allocate a few minutes to proof read the letter. The writer must write the letter considering the reader who is to read and take necessary action for which the sufficient matter that concerns the reader most must be provided effectively. Do not worry about the word limit as if the relevant particulars are selected to draft the letter thereby eliminating the unwanted information. The examiners do not count the number of words but assesses whether the information included helps or hinders the reader’s accurate understanding of the situation.              

How to improve OET Reading?

by Mahesh Chandra Bhatt | Jan 29, 2021 | OET

The OET Reading sub-test begins with the test format which is common for all the health-care professionals followed by tips to help test takers prepare before the test and how to succeed on test day. Reading comprehension has three parts namely part A, B and C. Part A has 4 short texts whose word limit is not more than 650 and atleast 20 questions. The total duration for Part A is just 15 minutes which is completed separately and submitted to the invigilator. The question types are Matching, Gap filling and short answers. Part B and Part C together must be completed within 45 minutes. The total duration for the test is 60 minutes. Part B is an MCQ task which includes 6 short passages with a question per text which means a total of 6 MCQ’s must be comprehended. Each article has atleast 100-150 words. Part C is also depicts MCQ’s has two passages which are the longest and their word limited are 750-850 words each with 16 questions which means 8 questions per text. The total number of questions to be answered are 42. Each question carries equal weightage in marking which means the overall score is calculated out of 42 marks. The OET Reading Part A, B and C tests different reading skills. Part A expects the candidates to skim the passage which means read quickly to familiarize with the important points and scan also wherein going through all areas of a particular paragraph to locate some feature that could be closer to the answers of questions. Part B testing focus is on reading for gist – substance or general meaning of the passage, purpose – understanding the objectives of the lines given in any article, main points – the most crucial aspect or the central idea of the text and detail – description or explanation of particulars. Part C skill assessment areas are different from that of both Part A and B as well. Part C examines the trainees’ abilities to select answers by way of inference – a conclusion arrived at on the basis of proof and reasoning, attitude – the point of view as per the explanations in the text and opinion – a judgment or a belief arrived at after going through the various aspects of any text. The passages read in Reading Part A are work place texts which is based on consultation of patients to provide them the most appropriate treatments. Reading treatment protocols, medication information, treatment parts or diagnosis tools are some of the chosen extracts for Part A.

In order to do well in Part A reading comprehension questions, read for a detailed picture on the subject related to work place situations in a typical health-care setting written in English in addition to specifically setting the device controls and menus to English, timetables and restaurant menus to English and use English-English dictionaries. These techniques can help test takers improve their English skills which would enable them to both skim and scan perfectly well as a consequence of which the selected answers for the questions would be almost always correct.

Another methodology to improve scanning in Part A of the reading test is to complete word searches. This could be an ideal training to help any candidate scan all over the text rather than just beginning to scan from the opening lines of the passage and reading the information in order. When completing a word search it is important to notice what makes a word different from others. For Example, Does it contain unusual letters such as X, Z or J? Does it contain double letters SS, PP or LL? Does it contain unusual letter combinations namely U, A, O, I, P, H?

An example on Part A questions are:-

READING PART A MINI PRACTICE  

TEXT A TABLE 6 SEVERITY ASSESSMENT 2MINUTE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Infants                          Mild to moderate                               Severe     

Infants’                     <38.5 degrees centigrade                  >38.5 degrees centigrade

Respiratory rate                                Respiratory rate

50 breaths per minute                       70 breaths per minute

Mild Recession                                 moderate to severe recession

Taking full feeds                              nasal flaring

Cyanosis

Intermittent apnoea

Grunting respiration

Not feeding

Tachycardia *

Capillary refill time 2

Older children             <38.5 degrees centigrade                >38.5 degrees centigrade

Respiratory rate                              Respiratory rate

50 breaths per minute                     50 breaths per minute

Mild breathlessness                        severe difficulty in breathing

No vomiting                                    Nasal Flaring

Cyanosis

Grunting respiration

Signs of dehydration

Tachycardia *

Capillary refill time 2

1. This text provides information regarding
2. The treatment protocol for a child with severe case of pneumonia
3. Establishing the seriousness of a case of pneumonia in a baby
4. How much medication to provide a child with pneumonia
5. An infant who is still accepting ________________ is more likely to have mild to moderate than severe pneumonia
6. How many breaths per day can indicate pneumonia in a baby?
7. What two factors must be considered while assessing whether a child has tachycardia?
8. A pediatric patient with a temperature of 38 degrees centigrade would be considered to have _________________ pneumonia.

A passage on severity assessment is given without directly stating that it is for pneumonia. The first question is, this text provides information regarding, read the text and answer the question after locating the same with precision. The text is a table on severity assessment where the degree of severity is stated as an initial phase from ‘mild to moderate’ and ‘severe’ which must be read carefully. The infants and older children’s symptoms of a disease vary greatly.

The three options for question 1 are:-

1. The treatment protocol for a child with a severe case of pneumonia
2. Establishing the seriousness of a case of pneumonia in a baby
3. How much medication to provide a child with pneumonia

This passage does not talk about treatment, symptoms and medications as well, so option b is the correct answer.

Question 2 is a gap fill type.

An infant who is still accepting (something) is more likely to have mild to moderate than sever pneumonia. As per this question, the answer is given on the second column ‘mild to moderate’. The answer to be given is ‘taking full feeds’. The words to be incorporated is ‘full feeds’, ‘taking’ is same as that of ‘accepting’. It is important to write ‘full feeds’ itself than ‘feeds’ or ‘feed’ to get the answer correct. Copy and paste the answer ‘full feeds’ on the gap to complete the sentence and no adjustments are required.

Question 3 is how many breaths per minute may indicate severe pneumonia in a baby?

The answer is given at column three labelled ‘severe’. The answer is more than 70 or > 70.

Question 4 is what two factors must be considered when considering whether a child has tachycardia?  The word ‘tachycardia’ for infants is not applicable because it is for a child. The word tachycardia is followed by an * whenever the * is given, it means check the bottom of the text, some of the answers can also be presented at the bottom of the text. The answer is age and temperature.

Question 5 is a pediatric patient with temperature of 38 degrees centigrade would be considered to have _____________ pneumonia. The answer is ‘mild to moderate’. The word with the symbol given under the column ‘mild to moderate’ is less than 38.5 degree.

The passage to be read in Reading Comprehension Part B are also work place texts that are short passages and may not necessarily be the whole extract on any work place scenario as it had been originally drafted but will contain all the information needed to answer the questions. It might be based on updates, policy documents, memo’s/e-mails or guidelines on typical type of work place communication between colleagues. The preparation methodology for Part B Reading Comprehension is reading for the main idea from short health care articles. It would be possible to do so by making use of work place documentation that are already accessible at work spots. Alternatively, reading online health care articles or even types of information found on notice boards and waiting rooms for doctors or dental practice are other ways to enhance reading skills to perform exemplarily in Part B reading comprehension also. For Example, the article on correct identification and procedures for patients are broken down into small sections with sub headings. Each of the sections can be read and find out the main point emphasized in each of them.

Annual Medication Review

To give all patients an annual medication review is an ideal to strive for. In the meantime there is an argument for targeting all clinical medication reviews to those patients likely to benefit most.

Our guidelines state that, atleast a level two medication review will occur. The minimum standard is a treatment review of medicines with the full notes but not necessarily with the patient present. However, the guidelines go on to say ‘all patients should have a chance to raise questions and highlight problems about their medicines’ and that ‘any changes resulting from the review are agreed with the patient’.

It also states that GP practices are expected to

Minimize waste in prescribing and avoid ineffective treatments

Engage effectively in the prevention of ill health

Avoid the need for costly treatments by proactively managing patients to recover through the whole care pathway.

1. The guidelines require those undertaking a clinical medication review to
2. Involve the patient (in their decisions) noun phrase
3. Consider the cost (of any change in treatments) noun phrase
4. Recommend other services (as an alternative to medication) noun phrase

Each text begins with a context statement which helps test takers understand what the purpose of the text is. As stated in the opening lines of the passage it is ‘medication review’ and the question also states almost a similar context statement ‘a clinical medication review’. The context is given in the stem which is an incomplete sentence and the three options A, B and C also has a verb phrase which forms a part of each answer option namely ‘involve the patient’, ‘consider the cost’ and ‘recommend other services’ and these varied information must be understood easily that helps to arrive at the correct option (the answer). In this example the action is provided in a verb phrase whereas the detail of the action is in a noun phrase such as ‘in their decisions’, ‘of any change in treatments’ and ‘as an alternative to medication’.

Our guidelines state that, atleast a level two medication review will occur. The minimum standard is a treatment review of medicines with the full notes but not necessarily with the patient present. Lines 3 and 4 from this passage appears to prove that option A is incorrect but by continuing to read and noticing the word however, ‘any changes resulting from the review are agreed with the patient’ indicates the main point which provides evidence that option A is the correct answer.  As it is important to locate the correct option, one must also know why the other options such as B and C are wrong. These lines from the text ‘It also states that GP practices are expected to avoid the need for costly treatments by proactively managing patients to recover through the whole care pathway’ does not match option B which states consider the cost (of any change in treatments) as it is so in the answer option, costs are not stated in relation to changes in treatment. Likewise, minimize the waste in prescribing and avoid ineffective treatments as given in the passage has no direct reference to alternatives in medication but the inclusion of this phrase could be inferred to mean the same thing, so it does not agree with Option C Recommend other services (as an alternative to medication).

The two longer texts in Reading Comprehension Part C to be read are on general health care topics and would most probably be in an article format. They may not be the complete passage but will definitely contain sufficient information to answer the text. To perform exceptionally well in Reading Part C, it is necessary to practice reading for the writer’s perspective in English. The texts include a number of different opinion pieces, so reading texts which are more opinionated and factual will be a good practice. Other types of passages that will be good to read regularly are journals of professional regulatory bodies and review articles on research papers. There are opinion questions, main idea questions, and vocabulary and phrase questions. It is necessary to apply critical thinking skills which can help the test taker make better choices when it comes to answering MCQ’s. Read analytically means read and understand the questions, read the text and work out the main idea and read the answer choices. While doing this underline the key words in both the questions as well as the answer choices and in the text you must think deeply and analyze as you go. Another part of critical thinking is logical reasoning so the answer choices vary commonly where different words are used, preferably synonyms, or summarizing techniques also of the main ideas so the answer options will have different words in comparison to the explanations given in the passage and it is important to read between the lines for understanding the deeper meaning and that is where logical reasoning is prioritized to the core.

The first strategy to approach reading part C questions are the QTA method which means questions – text – answers. It means read the question stem, then read the text and then read the answer choices.  To manage time effectively, the question stem must be read in 15 seconds to understand what is asked and then read the paragraph and thereby underline key words and understanding relationships between ideas and looking out for signal words such as ‘but’ or ‘however’ or ‘for this reason’ or ‘the way ideas are linked together’.  A minute can be allocated to read the text and there are four answer choices that can be gone through in depth after which the incorrect answer choices can be ruled out and the answer that matches can be corrected which would be for a time span of 1 minute and a total duration of 2 minutes 15 seconds allocated per question. For example:- question 1 in the first paragraph, what is the writer’s attitude to the new programme? Here to find out the answer for this type of question, it is significant to read between the lines because the meaning would be a lot deeper so the approach to select a particular attitude or so as highlighted in the text may not be the right approach to find out the answer.

In the first paragraph, question 1 what is the writer’s attitude towards the new programme? (15seconds to read the question)

Text 1:- A US doctor gives his views on a new program. (1 minute to read the passage)

An important component of a patient’s history and physical examination is the question of ‘medical compliance’, the term used by physicians to designate whether, or not, a patient is taking his or her medications. Many a hospital chart bears the notorious comment ‘patient has a history of non-compliance’. Now, under a new experimental programme in Philadelphia, USA, patients are being paid to take their medications. The concept makes sense in theory – failure to comply is one of the most common reasons that patients are readmitted to hospital shortly after being discharged.  

The options are as follows:- (1 minute to choose the correct answer)

1. He doubts that it is correctly named
2. He appreciates the reason behind it
3. He is skeptical about whether it can work
4. He is more enthusiastic than some other doctors

Option A he doubts that it is correctly named (this option is ruled out as no name is given)

Option C he is skeptical about whether it can work (not given in this paragraph)

Option D he is more enthusiastic than some other doctors (no other doctors mentioned)

Option B he appreciates the reasons behind it (the concept makes sense in theory: reasons behind failure to comply). The patient’s failure to comply, they don’t take their medications and that’s why they have considered this programme.

The second strategy is the QAT Method is a Question – Answer – Text method. It means read the question followed by the answer options also and then go through the passage. Question 2 in the second paragraph, the writer suggests that the of category of non-compliance is

1. Elderly patients who are given occasional assistance (not occasional it’s daily)
2. Patients who are over-prescribed with a certain drug (incorrect no mention of “overprescribed”. Pills are vital.
3. Busy working people who mean to be complaint (correct answer) well intentioned
4. People who are by nature vary of taking pills (not given)

Text 2

Compliant patients take their medications because they want to live as long as possible; some simply do so because they are responsible, conscientious individuals by nature. But the hustle and bustle of daily life and employment often get in the way of taking medications, especially those that are timed inconveniently or in frequent dozes even for such well-intentioned patients. For the elderly and the mentally or physically impaired, US insurance companies will often pay for a daily visit by a nurse, to ensure a patient gets at least one set of the most vital pills. But other patients are left to fend for themselves, and it is not uncommon these days for patients to be taking a considerable number of vital pills daily.

Question 3 what problem with some patients are described in the third paragraph?

Text 3

Some patients have not been educated properly been educated about the importance of their medications in layman’s terms. They told me, for instance, they don’t have high blood pressure because they were once prescribed a high blood pressure pill – in essence, they view an antihypertensive as an antibiotic that can be used as a short-term treatment for a short-term problem. Others have told me that they never had a heart attack because they were taken to cardiac catheterization lab and ‘fixed’. As physicians were responsible for making sure patients understand their own medical history and their own medications.

1. They forget which prescribed medication is for which condition (not given)
2. They fail to recognize that some medical conditions require ongoing treatment (correct)
3. They don’t understand their treatment even when it is explained in simple terms (incorrect)
4. They believe that taking some prescribed pills means they don’t need to take others. (not given)

Question 4 what does the writer say about the side effects of medication?

1. Doctors need to have better plans in place if they develop (easy to rule out as no comparison with a better plan)
2. There is too much misleading information about them online (it does not say the side effects are misleading)
3. Fear of them can waste a lot of unnecessary consultation time (not the focus)
4. Patients need to be informed about the likelihood of them occurring (there are some risks but there are many benefits correct)

Text 4

Not uncommonly patients will say, ‘I go ogled it the other day, and there are a long list of side effects’. But a simple conversation with the patient at this juncture can easily change their perspective. As with many things in medicine, it’s all about risks versus benefits – that’s what we as physicians are trained to analyze. And patients can be rest assured that, we will monitor them closely for side effects and address any that are unpleasant, either by treating them or trying a different medication.

Question 5 what objection to the programme does the writer make in the sixth paragraph?

Text 5

Although a simple financial programme has its appeal, its complications abound. What’s worse, it seems to be saying to the society: as physicians, we tell our patients that not only do we work to care for them, but we will now pay them to take better care of themselves. And by the way for all your medication complaint patients out there, you can have the inherent reward of a longer, healthier life, but we are not going to bother sending you money. This seems like some sort of implied punishment.  

1. It will be counterproductive (incorrect)
2. It will place heavy demand on doctors (incorrect)
3. It sends the wrong message to patients (pay non complaint patients) (don’t pay non complaint patients) correct
4. It is a simplistic idea that falls on its details (the programme may be simple, but the details is not where it falls down. It’s the “principle”. That’s the issue. (Incorrect)

Question 6

The writer suggests about his grandmother

1. May ultimately have benefited from her non-compliance (correct got what she wanted)
2. Would have appreciated closer medical supervision (not given)
3. Might have underestimated how ill she was (not given)
4. Should have followed the doctor’s advice (close but rule out with the last three sentences). Incorrect

Text 6

When discussing the complicated nuances compliance with my students, I given the example of my grandmother. A thrifty, no nonsense woman, she routinely sliced all the cholesterol and my heart disease pills her doctor prescribed in half, taking only half the dose. If I questioned this, she would wave me off with, ‘what do those doctors know anyway?’ sadly she died, suddenly, aged 87, most likely of a massive heart attack, had she taken the medicines at the appropriate doses, she might have survived it. But maybe she would have died a more painful death from some other ailment. Her biggest fear had always been ending up in a nursing home, and by luck or design, she was able to avoid that. Perhaps there was some wisdom in her ‘non-compliance’.

To summarize, the best way to prepare for OET Reading is as follows:- Read a variety of texts on a variety of health care topics. Do not be tempted to read with your dictionary, train yourself to familiarize with unfamiliar vocabulary in texts. Checking words as you read won’t help you to do this. Save the dictionary until the article is completely read. Use an English-English dictionary to look up for unknown words. Do complete the official practice tests so that you are familiar with the format of reading tests.  Spend time improving reading skills. This will make the most noticeable difference in the scores on test day. Develop strategies for time management. Do some practice for reading tasks using a clock for Part A. Learn to split your time for reading Part B and C so that you have enough time on each task?

To score exceptionally well in reading Part A, at the start of the time, quickly glance at the four texts to understand the topics and to get an idea on the difference in content between them. Use this information to help you answer the section of questions matching information to one of the texts. This section is designed to orient you to the contents of the text. Use some key vocabulary and do section 2 and section 3. Make sure the answered are copied accurately from the text. Don’t be too worried about the time. Work slowly and steadily through the questions, if there is anything you can’t answer quickly, you should have time to go back and answer that question and notice the differences between them. During reading Part B use the context heading to understand the purpose and type of each text. Read the three answer options carefully and notice the differences between them. Underline key words if it is helpful. Check the text for all of the answers. You should be able to find evidence on why one of the answers is correct and others are wrong. Remember all parts of the answer options must be covered by the text. Manage your time as 45 minutes is the total duration for Part B and C. You will probably need to complete answering all the questions in Part B by 10 minutes so another 35 minutes is required to answers questions that fall under Part C. In reading Part C, remember the questions sequentially move through the text. You will not need to return to earlier content to answer subsequent questions. Read the question and four answer options carefully because it important to understand the meaning of the words in combination and not just the definition of words. If you cannot answer a question quickly, you know you find some types of questions easier, move on and complete the easier ones and come back to the ambiguous ones later. You need not need to get a previous question correct to get the next question correct, if you find one question difficult don’t let it distract you, forget it and move on to the next one. Manage your time to leave an equal amount of time per text. Ideally you will have around 35 minutes for Part C which includes some time to get back to the unanswered questions in the end.

How to improve OET Listening?

by Mahesh Chandra Bhatt | Jan 29, 2021 | OET

The listening test is the same for all the health-care professionals. The total duration of the test is approximately 40 minutes. Listening comprehension comprises of Part A, B and C. Part A is a gap fill task. It includes two extracts with two speakers in each of them. The format is a health-care consultation between a patient and one of the health care professionals. Part B is a multiple choice task. It includes six short extracts with one question per extract. There can be either one or two speakers in each of the extracts. The format is work place communication between colleagues or health-care professionals and patients. Part C is also a multiple choice task with either one or two speakers in each of them. The format is either a presentation or interview with one speaker being a health care professional talking about a general topic.

Each part of the test has a different testing focus. Part A tests the ability to listen for details on two sets of recordings on a health-care consultation – means it could be full information about something or an explanation on specific particulars. Part B tests a few more listening skills such as listening for gist – means trying to get the general meaning, essence or substance of the recorded extracts, purpose – which is particularly the reason for an action, details – means focusing on the recording for full particulars and function – means concentrating on an activity that is natural to a person or a thing and all these different skills to be adopted are based on work place communication between health-care professionals and patients or even colleagues. Part C also tests a variety of listening skills including listening for gist – means working on the recordings to get the overall meaning or the sum and substance of the oral communication, attitude – means understanding a view point or frame of mind while concentrating on the set recordings and opinion – means a stance or judgment formed about something while grasping the presentation or an interview with a speaker being a health-care professional interacting on a general topic.

Each listening test will have the same number of questions. Part A has 24 gaps to complete and 12 for extracts. Part B has 6 MCQ’s to answer and one for extract. Part C has 12 MCQ’S to answer and six for extracts. Each question is equally weighted so the overall score in the listening test is calculated out of 42 marks.

How to prepare for OET Listening Comprehension Part A?

The extracts that test takers listen for Part A are work place consultations. You might hear the consultation with a specialist as a result of the referral of a patient to the specialist from the patient’s GP or it could also be an initial consultation for the patient with a health-care professional. You will not necessarily hear the beginning of the consultation nor will the consultation extracts necessarily follow the same formats. The information provided by the patients will make up each of the extracts and what you need to focus on is hear the answers you need to complete each gap. To prepare for Listening Part A, you need to practice listening for details in health-care consultations in English. You may be able to do this at work by listening in to consultations happening around you. Alternatively, there are a number of TV documentaries which focus on patient experiences in hospitals. 24 hours A and E Series 7 is a TV show in the UK which documents some of the patients who present at a major London hospital in one 24 hour period. When listening to one of these programs, you must focus on patients’ description of their health and how the health-care professional manages the conversation asking for more details moving the conversation forward etc.

Description of OET Listening Part A. Complete the gaps with words from the audio.

Patient:-  Andrew Taylor

Has had _1____ over a long period

Reports a frequent __2______ sensation in the last year

Most recently ______3__________ has become a problem

Word used to describe symptoms __4________

Pre-existing skin condition aggravated

Frequent _____5_________ patient didn’t initially link these to bowel condition

Go through the case notes with gaps and complete the gap with word/words or short phrases from the audio.

Method to be applied on test day:-

The important rule is that the patient will say the answers for the stated questions. A Gastroenterologist talks to the patient Andrew Taylor. Listening very carefully to the medical professional is very important because the medical professional guides the test taker through different case notes.

1. Anticipate what the answers might be:-

The answers predicted in the 30 seconds allocated time for reading could be as follows:-

Recap questions 1-5

Patient:-  Andrew Taylor

1. Has had medical issue hernia/cough over a long period
2. Reports a frequent burning itching? sensation in the last year
3. Most recently another medical issue has become a problem
4. Word used to describe symptoms – adjective terrible? Awful?

Pre-existing skin condition aggravated

5. Frequent Noun+s headaches patient didn’t initially link these to bowel condition

Recap questions 6-8

6. Works as an job starting with a vowel – airline host?
7. Situation at work means patient is verb+ing sleepy
8. Complains of lack of sleep

Recap questions 9-12

9. Claims to be consuming sufficient mineral? Food type?
10. Claims to keep hydrated
11. Has experimented with excluding specific food from the diet

Very slight reduction in caffeine intake

Has undergone MRI? no indications of anything problematic

Medication

Has taken anti-spasmodic – not very effective

12. Now trying type of medication?

 Synonymous Language

We could say the same content in different ways.

Has had ________ over a long period.

Well erm, this has been going on for many years. After meals I’ve always tended to get xxxx (answer)  The same words in the notes are not used while listening to the recording.

Situation at work means patient is _____________

There’s a chance I might lose my job in a reorganization of my department, so that’s obviously something that’s making me xxxx (answer). I don’t know what’s going to happen is a clue that tells what the answer would be to fill the gap.

Claims to be consuming sufficient _____________

Claims to keep hydrated

I was told by a nutritionist I saw that people with irritable bowel syndrome don’t eat enough xxxx (answer). In my case I don’t feel that’s an issue. I’ve followed the nutritionist’s advice about taking more fluids during the day, especially water, and accept that, in the past, maybe I didn’t do that enough.

All these show the difference between what the speakers say and what’s on the page, they are different ways of expressing the same content. They are synonymous. This must be understood clearly by the test taker.

2. Use the guided posts:-

Use titles and key words to guide you if you get lost and then there is going to be one sentence that does not have a gap. This gives time for the test taker to catch up as there would be a brief talk on the pre-existing skin condition aggravated. This talk leads on to the answer for question number 5.

Recap questions 1-5

Patient:-  Andrew Taylor

Background

Has had _1____ over a long period

Reports a frequent __2______ sensation in the last year

Most recently ______3__________ has become a problem

Word used to describe symptoms __4________

Pre-existing skin condition aggravated

Frequent _____5_________ patient didn’t initially link these to bowel condition

After the gaps for questions 1-4, there is a brief talk on pre-existing skin condition after which the answer for question 5 is stated.

Recap question 9

Diet

Claims to be consuming sufficient _______9________

Claims to keep hydrated

Example of a SIGNPOST.

Gastroenterologist:-

Mmm, right, and I understand that you’ve investigated the possibility that your diet’s responsible for your condition. Can you tell me about this?

The key word diet tells the listener where he/she is on the page while listening to the recording.

3. PRACTICE:-

Listen to the recording and see the questions on the screen and answer them one after the other by putting numbers 1 to 12 on a sheet of paper.

Extract 1 questions 1-12

You hear a Gastroenterologist talking to a patient called Andrew Taylor.

For questions 1-12, complete the notes with a word or a short phrase.

You now have 30 seconds to look at the notes.

Questions 1-12

Patient:-  Andrew Taylor

Has had _1____ over a long period

Reports a frequent __2______ sensation in the last year

Most recently ______3__________ has become a problem

Word used to describe symptoms __4________

Pre-existing skin condition aggravated

Frequent _____5_________ patient didn’t initially link these to bowel condition

Effects of condition on everyday life.

Works as an/a _____6________

Situation at work means patient is ________7________

Complains of lack of _____8________

Diet

Claims to be consuming sufficient _______9________

Claims to keep hydrated

Has experimented with excluding ______10______ from the diet

Very slight reduction in caffeine intake

Has undergone _____11_______ no indications of anything problematic

Medication

Has taken anti-spasmodic – not very effective

Now trying ___12_______

Once you have listened, read the questions and answered the same concurrently after which the answers can be revealed along with extracts from the tape script.

Patient:-  Andrew Taylor

Tape script:-

Gastroenterologist:- Good Morning Mr. Taylor, now you’ve been referred to me because it is possible that you have been suffering from irritable bowel syndrome or related condition.

Taylor:- Yes, that’s right.

Gastroenterologist:- Okay, you could start by giving me some background.

Taylor:- mmm Well, this has been going on for many years. After meals, I’ve tended to get heart burn but I found that pretty easy to deal with taking anti-acids from the pharmacy but a year ago things were worse and there were other problems I started to notice. The symptoms vary a lot. It can be quite hard to describe actually but the main problem is bloating. I had to tell you some other things related to my stomach, although this isn’t something that happens every day, I’ve been suffering from constipation in the last month. in the past I’ve had the opposite problem, I would rush to the toilet several times a day. I just never know how I’m going to feel from one day to the next. It’s the way symptoms are, so unpredictable that I hate. It’s hard to plan my life.

Gastroenterologist:- Were there any other symptoms unrelated to your stomach or bowel?

Taylor:- I’ve had a skin condition that can flare up. I know this could be related to irritable bowel syndrome and another thing is, I often have migraines. It’s more or less at the same time as my stomach discomfort and these can go on for days. It’s strange that I didn’t first think it has anything to do with my stomach problem.

Gastroenterologist:- Have you ever noticed anything that can intensify the symptoms in any way?

Taylor:- I’ve a very demanding job as an accountant. I don’t know whether this has a bearing on anything but there’s a chance I might lose my job in the reorganization of my department. That’s obviously something that is making me anxious. I don’t know what’s going to happen

Gastroenterologist:- What is the worst effect the condition has on you?

Taylor:- The problem isn’t just that, it is always on my mind and that there is some pretty big distraction but also that it is so draining. What I mean is, I often have got no energy at all. I just wanted to sit around and do nothing when I get home from work to be honest. I go to bed tired but I’m a bit frustrated because I haven’t seen me much than I’ve ever done before. I wouldn’t say I’ve been suffering from depression but a condition like this can rather make you feel down.

Gastroenterologist:- All right. And I understand, you’ve investigated the possibility that your diet is responsible for this condition. Can you tell me something about this?

Taylor:- I was told by a nutritionist, ‘I saw that people with irritable bowel syndrome often don’t eat enough fibre’. In my case I don’t feel that’s not an issue. I follow the nutritionist’s advice about taking more fluids during the day especially water and except that in the past maybe I didn’t do that enough. It’s hard to say whether that made a difference. Possibly it caused slight improvement. I’ve read that dairy products can make things worse so I tried cutting them down. I wasn’t convinced that it made any difference. I’ve cut back on caffeine though not much actually. I also extensively paid for food allergy tests but it didn’t show anything major so that’s not an area my doctors thought investigating further.

Gastroenterologist:- What medication is to be tried?

Taylor:- I took something called the anti-spasmodic which my GP says hopes to relax the muscular contractions, move food through the gut, but to be honest, I don’t think it made much difference in my case.

Gastroenterologist:- Have you taken anything else?

Taylor:- well I’ve been given anti-depressants and I’m giving them a go. I wasn’t sure I completely understood the reasons. Well a drug like that targets signals sent to and from nerves in the digestive system.

Gastroenterologist:- Do you find that this drug was effective?

Taylor:- Yes I’d say it was on the whole.

Has had heart burn (after meals) over a long period

Well this has been going on for many years after meals I tended to get heart burns

Reports a frequent bloating sensation in the last year

A year ago things were worse and there were other problems I started to notice. The symptoms vary a lot. It can be quite hard to describe exactly but the main problem is bloating

Most recently constipation has become a problem

I’ve been suffering from constipation in the last month.

Word used to describe symptoms so unpredictable

I just never know how I’m going to feel from one day to the next, it is the way the symptoms are, so unpredictable that I hate.

Pre-existing skin condition aggravated

Frequent migraines – patient didn’t initially link these to bowel condition

I’ve a skin condition that can flare up. I know this would be related to irritable bowel syndrome and another thing is I often have migraines. It is more or less at the same time as stomach discomfort and these can go on for days. It is strange and I didn’t first think it has anything to do with my stomach problem.

Effects of condition on everyday life.

Works as an accountant

I have a very demanding job as an accountant.

Situation at work means patient is anxious

There is a chance that I might lose my job in the reorganization of my department. That’s obviously something that is making me anxious.  

Complains of lack of energy

What I mean is I often feel I’ve got no energy at all.  

Diet

Claims to be consuming sufficient fibre/fiber

I was told by a nutritionist, I saw that people with irritable bowel syndrome don’t eat enough fibre. In my case I don’t feel that’s an issue

Claims to keep hydrated

I follow the nutritionist’s advice about taking more fluids during the day, especially water and except that in the past maybe I didn’t do that enough.

Has experimented with excluding dairy products from the diet

I’ve read that dairy products can make things worse so I tried cutting them down.

Very slight reduction in caffeine intake

I’ve cut back on caffeine though not much actually.

Has undergone (extensive) food allergy tests no indications of anything problematic

I also extensively paid for food allergy tests but it didn’t show anything major so that’s not an area my doctors thought investigating further.

Medication

Has taken anti-spasmodic – not very effective

I took something called an anti-spasmodic which my general physician says hopes to relax muscular contractions, move food through the gut, but to be honest, I don’t think it made much difference in my case.

Now trying anti-depressants/or an anti-depressant

Well I’ve been given anti-depressants and I’m giving them a go.

The extracts you hear in Listening Comprehension Part B are examples of work place communication. You might hear part of a hand over, a training session or briefing or part of a discussion between colleagues or patient and health care professionals. Each extract is only around one minute long so it may be a snip age from a longer communication but it will contain all the information needed to answer the multiple choice questions. To prepare for Listening Part B, you need to practice listening for the gist in short health care communications in English. You may be able to do this by listening to intercommunication happening around your work. Alternatively, you can find many examples of health-car training videos in English on the internet. The majority of answer options in listening Part B will include a verb or verb phrase. You may be more familiar with some of these verbs and others. They are fairly formal. They are all typical to the health care work place so it is good to spend some time familiarizing with them and then their meaning. For example:- you may know more informal expressions or words with meaning, find or locate and install etc. Some of the words are:- correct, describe, wish, buy, locate                                                              get approval, Explain, install, accept, value, write, prioritize, clarify, deal with                            confirm,  develop, treat, identify a problem, use, suggest,  etc.

In this part of the test you will hear six extracts. In each extract you will hear people talking about a different health care setting. For questions 25-30, choose the answer A,B, or C which fits best according to what you hear. You will have to read each of the questions before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen. Let me show you how the MCQ’s will look like?

25. You hear an optometrist taking to a patient who has been trying contact lenses for the first time?

What is the patient concerned about?

1. Has blurred vision
2. Soreness in his eyes
3. How to remove the lenses
4. You hear two radiologists talking about the type of scan given to the patient.

They agree to choose the method which will

1. Allow them to see the whole of the appendix
2. Probably give the most accurate
3. Have the finest risks for the patient

The length of the options can vary. Most importantly – the audio tells you who will speak. For Question 25, there will be two people speaking, the optometrist and the patient. It is important that you know who will be speaking because it will help you to guide you through the talking. Sometimes it will be two people and at other times it can be one person. The question prompt is absolutely critical because it is asking you to listen for something. For example:- What is the patient concerned about? Yet another thing to be understood is that question 25 is a direct question. The situation in question 25 is the Optometrist talking to a patient to know his or her concerns. Question 28 is all about two radiologists talking about the type of scan given to a patient. However, question 28 is an incomplete sentence, they agree to choose the method which will ……

The other questions are as follows:-

26. You will hear a nurse asking a colleague for help with a patient. Why does the nurse need help?
27. a) The patient’s condition has deteriorated
28. b) The patient is worried about the procedure
29. c) The patient is reporting increased pain levels.

A nurse is asking a colleague for help. It is important to particularly listen particularly to why the nurse needs help. That’s critical. You’ll have enough time to read this question and the answer options twice before it starts playing, you go back to the question prompt. It is a direct question. You are asking yourself, why does the nurse need help? Then when it finishes, you quickly scan A, B or C and you circle the correct answer.

27. You hear a senior nurse talking about a new initiative that has been introduced on her ward

What problem was it intended to solve?

1. Patient’s confusion over information given by the doctor
2. Relatives not being able to discuss issues with the doctor
3. Patients not discussing all their concerns when meeting the doctor.

This is a monologue wherein a senior nurse is talking about a new initiative that has been started in her ward. Listen to the recording on the kind of issue that could be overcome as a result of this new initiative. When that’s the question prompt and a direct one, listening carefully to the stumbling block that had to be solved after beginning a new initiative in the ward.

29. You hear a part of the surgical team’s briefing:

The male surgeon suggests that the patient could:-

1. Require specialist equipment during surgery
2. Benefit from a specific anesthetic procedure
3. Be at risk of complications from another issue

The team of surgeons brief on the condition of the diseased after surgery and the kind of treatment and medication administered. This question is an incomplete sentence where the male surgeon suggests things many not be good for the bedridden person who has a surgery and is most likely to undergo another serious operation.  You will hear a senior research associate talking about a proposal to introduce inter-professional primary health-care teams.

30. The senior research associate talks about a proposal to start inter-professional primary health care centre

What hasn’t been established about the teams yet?

1. The best way for collaboration to take place
2. The financial impact that they are likely to have
3. The aspect of medical care they are best suited to

The senior research associate talks about a proposal to start inter-professional primary health care. The direct question is, what has not been established about the teams. The listening skill must be confined to the question prompt which is a direct question after understanding the monologue to be presented in the given statement which is just before the  direct question followed by the given options.

The test takers must listen to the tape script and choose the correct option. The correct answers and the wrong options are discussed at length to help test takers understand why one option is correct and other options are distracters.

25. You hear an optometrist taking to a patient who has been trying contact lenses for the first time?

What is the patient concerned about?

1. His blurred vision
2. Soreness in his eyes
3. How to remove the lenses

Tape script:-

Optometrist:- Now you’ve had the lenses in for a few minutes. How are they feeling?

Patient:- Not bad. I’d feel them actually touching my eyes: that they’d be sore and prickly, but I can’t feel much at all. My eyes do feel a bit watery though.

Optometrist:- It’s OK – you’ve just used too much solution. Now, in a few minutes, I’II get you try taking them out and inserting them again by yourself.

Patient:- I had no trouble of taking them out earlier, but I’m not confident about putting them in. I worry I’II press too hard.

Optometrist:- That’s unlikely to happen.

Patient:- Things look rather distorted though, I mean, I can’t make out the letters on that chart

Optometrist:- Any of them

Patient:- Those lower down.

Optometrist:- Let’s give things another minute to settle down.

Each of the answer options given in the question were mentioned in the recording. Option B soreness in his eyes. Patient says I feel them actually touching my eyes that they’d been sore or prickly but I can’t feel much at all. Is the patient concerned about the soreness? Not at all. Option C is how to remove the lenses. The patient says I had no trouble taking them out earlier, but I’m not confident about putting them back in. I worry I’II press too hard.  Is the patient concerned about how to remove the lenses? No. as per Option A is the patient concerned about his blurred vision? Yes. The patient says things look rather distorted though. I mean, I can’t make out the letters on that chart. That’s what he is concerned about. The words blurred and distorted are synonyms and I can’t make out the letters in that chart are related to the word vision.

26. You will hear a nurse asking a colleague for help with a patient.

Why does the nurse need help?

1. a) The patient’s condition has deteriorated
2. b) The patient is worried about the procedure
3. c) The patient is reporting increased pain levels.

Option A, B and C are mentioned but only Option B is the correct answer. Patient is worried about procedure so she needs her chest drains removing, though, and she’s got herself in a bit of a state …. I think some reassurance might be needed first.

Tape Script:-

Male:- Cathy could you help me with the patient in Bed 103? The woman who had surgery two days ago?

Female:- Oh, Yes – she’s due for discharge today. Isn’t she? Does her pain relief need topping up again? I thought she wasn’t very comfortable this morning.

Male:- Oh, she’s on a reasonably low doze – but she’s coping. She needs her chest drains removing, though, she’s got herself into a bit of a state.

Female:- Well, that’s a two person job anyway. So I’II come with you. Has the consultant seen her? I know there was some concern yesterday about her condition, and the level of the fluids draining into the bags.

Male:- Oh he’s cleared her for removal of them today – but I think some reassurance must be needed first.

Female:- Right, I might just check her analgesia and give her more before we go ahead.

27. You hear a senior nurse talking about a new initiative that has been introduced on her ward

What problem was it intended to solve?

1. Patient’s confusion over information given by the doctor
2. Relatives not being able to discuss issues with the doctor
3. Patients not discussing all their concerns when meeting the doctor.

For this question the three Options A, B and C are given but Option C is the correct answer. A scheme called ‘Dear Doctor’ which involves giving each patient a card where they can make a note of any questions or concerns that they, themselves, have …. Patients used to say they only thought of the things they felt they needed to discuss when it was too late, so the cards give them a better chance to bring up whatever is in on their minds. In fact it’s been so successful that we’re going to roll it on all wards in the hospital. 

Tape script:-

Female:- One of our key priorities is improving communications between staff, patients and patients’ families. We recently introduced a scheme called ‘Dear Doctor’, which involves giving each patient a card where they can make a note of any questions or concerns that they, themselves have. They can also talk to their families during visiting time and even on the phone and see if there’s anything else they would like to add. The cards are then collected and given to the doctor before the ward round. We’re really pleased with the response – patients used to say they only thought of the things they felt they needed to discuss when it was too late, so the cards give them a better chance to bring up whatever is there on their minds. In fact it’s been so successful that we’re going to roll it on all wards in the hospital.

28. You hear two radiologists talking about the type of scan given to the patient.

They agree to choose the method which will

1. Allow them to see the whole of the appendix
2. Probably give the most accurate
3. Have the finest risks for the patient

Here Option C is the correct answer. Have the fewest risks for the patient. Option A and B are mentioned but not in this context.

Female:- We can spare him the radiation

Male:- It means we can avoid the child being subject to contrast exposure as well. 

Tape script:-

Female:- I’ve just had a phone call from emergency. They have an 11-year-old boy with right lower quadrant abdominal pain. They are concerned about appendicitis and they would like to order an abdominal CT for him.

Male:- mmm do you think that is a good idea?

Female:- I was thinking maybe we should recommend an abdominal ultrasound, because then we can spare him the radiation.

Male:- Is there any concern in this case around using ultrasound instead of CT, accuracy, for example?

Female:- The sensitivity is slightly less than the CT, but the specificity’s almost the same, so I think we can rely on the results.

Male:- OK it means we can avoid the child being subject to contrast exposure as well. But what would we do if the ultrasound doesn’t answer the question?

Female:- it can’t visualize the complete appendix, then we can recommend an abdominal CT

Male:- OK we’ve a plan. Call them back and let them know.

29. You hear a part of the surgical team’s briefing:

The male surgeon suggests that the patient could:-

1. Require specialist equipment during surgery
2. Benefit from a specific anesthetic procedure
3. Be at risk of complications from another issue

Option B is the correct answer. Benefit from a specific anesthetic procedure.

Male:- I know he was in a lot of discomfort after his last surgery and this time he is going to need a larger mid-line incision. It may be worth thinking about an epidural. He is certainly in the extremely low edge in terms of pain threshold. The male surgeon suggests that the patient could benefit from a specific anesthetic procedure. The other options were mentioned but they were incorrect or contradictory.     

Tape script:-

Male:- OK. Next is Mr. Molloy’s laparotomy. Any anesthesia issues?

Female:- we don’t expect any particular problems: he’s relatively fit and well, except for his epilepsy, which is under good control. His BMI is 35 but,

Male:- Will he need the obesity bed?

Female:- It shouldn’t be an issue.

Male:- and what about the epilepsy post-operative management?

Female:- He’s taking his oral medications and we can use a 4 if necessary.

Male:- I know he was in a lot of discomfort after his last surgery and this time he’s going to need a larger mid line incision. It may be worth thinking about an epidural. He’s certainly at an extremely low edge in terms of pain threshold.

30. The senior research associate talks about a proposal to start inter-professional primary health care centre

What hasn’t been established about the teams yet?

1. The best way for collaboration to take place
2. The financial impact that they are likely to have
3. The aspect of medical care they are best suited to

The given question prompt is what hasn’t been established about the teams yet? The transcript states that Now, the extent to which these teams could affect the cost of health care in such areas isn’t quite clear within the evidence, but the work we are doing aims to address such issues. The answer is Option B the financial impact that they are likely to have.    

Tape script:-

Female:- we’re looking at opportunities to improve the effectiveness of health and health-care systems here in Canada. One of the interventions we are looking at is inter-professional primary care teams. Groups of professionals working together collaboratively to provide services including health-care, social services and advice to patients within the primary – care setting. There’s evidence that teams like these can improve chronic disease outcomes. Including diabetes, hypertension and heart disease, as well as mental health problems. There’s also evidence that improvements can be made in terms of both access to and coordination of care. Now, the extent to which these teams could affect the cost of health care in such areas isn’t quite clear within the evidence, but the work we are doing aims to address such issues, while looking at the challenges of implementation and evaluation.

The two longer extracts in Listening Part C focus on general health-care topics. The extracts will either be the interview of a health-care professional or a presentation given by a health-care professional. It need not necessarily be the whole of the interview or presentation by the health-care professional but will contain sufficient details to answer the questions. To prepare for Listening Part C, listening to the speaker’s perspective which means their opinion and attitude to the topic as well as the gist of what they are saying. Some good listening sources in English are Podcasts, TED talks as well as attending in-service training events at your work place. When listening or watching a presentation, such as the one produced by the World Health Organization (WHO), train the psyche to listen and concentrate for longer. By listening to unfamiliar content, try to train the psyche to listen unfamiliar vocabulary. This is important and it is easy to be distracted by an unfamiliar word. Do not pause the audio to check the meaning of some unfamiliar vocabulary. Make a note of such words to check the meaning later but while listening, allow the recording to continue so that the conversation is not broken at any point of time. Train the psyche to remain focused. It is easy to get switched off if the recording were to be a bit more complex than usual. The questions will help the test takers to clearly understand on what is to be listened to while the recording is played. The reading time must be used wisely at the commencement of the recording itself so that it is possible to focus on each question as per the listening texts and apply properly on the kind of particulars required after which choose the correct answer option itself.

For Example:- Like Listening Part B, each question will be clearly introduced so it will not be difficult to know when the recording has moved on to the next question. Also like Part B it is important to read each answer option carefully and thereby understand the information it provides.

The sample question for Listening Part C is as follows:-

1. Anne feels that, in the long term, her therapy helped Ted because
2. It led him to become less emotional
3. It made him appreciate the need for patience
4. It showed him there was something to work towards

In this example, each option stars with a phrase of similar meaning so these can be ignored because they will not help in finding the correct option which is the answer to the given question. Similarly, the different phrases in the question find the differences in each option gives valuable clues on what is heard and need be focused on. It is quite likely that the meaning of the answer option that is correct maybe inferred or implied rather than directly provided. This means listening to the individual words alone may not help but understand the meaning provided by them in combination as in the example.

Tape script

So how did my therapy help? Well, I worked with Ted on his hands, putting playing cards on a table and then getting him to pick one up – which he couldn’t do. But then he resorted to sliding the cards off the table and then picking them up that way – finding a way of compensating what he couldn’t do. He had become upset about what he felt was his lack of progress – relearning to do things you used to do with ease can be frustrating. But, in time, I got him to see that if he didn’t work with me, then he would stay as he was for the rest of his life. That was a big motivating factor.

The implication here is that, working with Anne meant Ted didn’t have to stay the way he was and this is backed up by the final sentence I got him to see that if he didn’t work with me, then he would stay as he was for the rest of his life. That was a big motivating factor. The meaning is implied. It doesn’t sound like the answer as it doesn’t use the words in the answer option. The last sentence confirms that this is the reason therapy helped but the listener needs to understand that the therapy would help Ted improve from the situation he was in at the time of speaking. Like Part B, it is also good to check on why the other options are incorrect.

Option A It led him to become less emotional

Option B It made him appreciate the need for patience.

In this example, Anne uses the past perfect tense to describe Ted’s situation before she met him makes Options A and B incorrect. They are mentioned but do not tell how Anne’s therapy helps Ted.

To Summarize, the best ways to prepare for listening is:- listen to a variety of recordings on a variety of health-care topics by a variety of speakers with a variety of accents. Practice listening for the length of the individual parts of the listening test but also for 40 minutes in one go which is the length to be concentrated on for the test day. Do complete official practice tests so that you are familiar with the format of the listening test but also spend time to improve your listening skills using the ideas already presented. This will make the most noticeable difference to the score on test day. Don’t be tempted to listen with a dictionary. Train yourself to deal with unfamiliar vocabulary in recordings so pausing the recordings to check the meanings of words won’t be helpful. Save the dictionary for after the completion of the recording.

To get the best result on test day for Listening Comprehension Part A, write the answers as the recording is played as the recording is only played once so the answers must be written down by the end of the audio. The answers to be written are short, say about 1-3 words and the length of the gap is sufficient for the same. Minor spelling and grammar mistakes are acceptable provided the assessors can understand the meaning of the answers. These mistakes won’t be penalized. The words must be used around the gaps to help keep up with the recording and to give clues for the information to be listened for.

To score high in Listening Part B, Use the context situation to help start imagining the communication heard and the vocabulary included. Read the answer options carefully and underline the key words which helps the test taker identify the correct answer. If the extract includes two speakers, make sure both the speakers conversation must be listened to carefully as the combination of their responses need to be understood clearly to select the correct option. Last of all but not the least, it is mandatory to listen to the whole audio. Try to check all of the options by listening to information that proves each option to be correct or even incorrect for that matter.

In do exceptionally well in Listening Part C, keep listening and concentrating the whole of each audio extracts in a rather focused manner. In the reading time, read he questions carefully and understand the information provided in each answer option. Listen for the audio to introduce each question to help know where the listener is as the recording progresses. The previous question need not necessarily be correct to get the next question also correct. If one question is probably a hard nut to crack, it is better to forget it and move to the next question. Use the two minutes at the end to check the answers are clearly marked and to guess any that was left blank.